Which of the following does Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP) support? A. Multicast and broadcast messages B. Coordination of IEEE 802.11 protocols C. Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) systems D. Synchronization of multiple devices
Answer: C
Rationale: TKIP was developed as an enhancement to WEP to fix its weaknesses without requiring hardware replacement.
Question 862
Question 862
The goal of software assurance in application development is to A. enable the development of High Availability (HA) systems. B. facilitate the creation of Trusted Computing Base (TCB) systems. C. prevent the creation of vulnerable applications. D. encourage the development of open source applications.
Answer: C
Rationale: Software assurance ensures applications are developed securely, minimizing coding flaws and vulnerabilities.
Question 863
Question 863
Which of the following BEST represents the principle of open design? A. Disassembly, analysis, or reverse engineering will reveal the security functionality of the computer system. B. Algorithms must be protected to ensure the security and interoperability of the designed system. C. A knowledgeable user should have limited privileges on the system to prevent their ability to compromise security capabilities. D. The security of a mechanism should not depend on the secrecy of its design or implementation.
Answer: D
Rationale: Open design promotes transparency; security should rely on robust mechanisms, not obscurity.
Question 864
Question 864
Which of the following wraps the decryption key of a full disk encryption implementation and ties the hard disk drive to a particular device? A. Trusted Platform Module (TPM) B. Preboot eXecution Environment (PXE) C. Key Distribution Center (KDC) D. Simple Key-Management for Internet Protocol (SKIP)
Answer: C
Rationale: Lack of change control is the most common cause of operational and security failures; it leads to unauthorized or poorly tested modifications.
Question 865
Question 865
Two companies wish to share electronic inventory and purchase orders in a supplier and client relationship. What is the BEST security solution for them? A. Write a Service Level Agreement (SLA) for the two companies. B. Set up a Virtual Private Network (VPN) between the two companies. C. Configure a firewall at the perimeter of each of the two companies. D. Establish a File Transfer Protocol (FTP) connection between the two companies.
Answer: B
Rationale: A VPN provides secure, encrypted communication channels between trusted business partners.
Question 866
Question 866
Which Hyper Text Markup Language 5 (HTML5) option presents a security challenge for network data leakage prevention and/or monitoring? A. Cross Origin Resource Sharing (CORS) B. WebSockets C. Document Object Model (DOM) trees D. Web Interface Definition Language (IDL)
Answer: B
Rationale: WebSockets establish persistent connections that bypass traditional monitoring, complicating data leakage prevention.
Question 867
Question 867
At a MINIMUM, a formal review of any Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP) should be conducted A. monthly. B. quarterly. C. annually. D. bi-annually.
Answer: C
Rationale: Annual DRP reviews ensure the plan remains accurate and aligns with changes in systems and personnel.
Question 868
Question 868
In Disaster Recovery (DR) and business continuity training, which BEST describes a functional drill? A. A full-scale simulation of an emergency and the subsequent response functions B. A specific test by response teams of individual emergency response functions C. A functional evacuation of personnel D. An activation of the backup site
Answer: D
Rationale: A functional drill simulates full emergency response scenarios to evaluate readiness and coordination.
Question 869
Question 869
What do Capability Maturity Models (CMM) serve as a benchmark for in an organization? A. Experience in the industry B. Definition of security profiles C. Human resource planning efforts D. Procedures in systems development
Answer: D
Rationale: CMM benchmarks process maturity, particularly in systems development lifecycle procedures.
Question 870
Question 870
Which of the following is an example of two-factor authentication? A. Retina scan and a palm print B. Fingerprint and a smart card C. Magnetic stripe card and an ID badge D. Password and Completely Automated Public Turing test to tell Computers and Humans Apart (CAPTCHA)
Answer: B
Rationale: Two-factor authentication requires two distinct categories—something you have (smart card) and something you are (fingerprint).
Question 871
Question 871
Which of the following is the MOST beneficial to review when performing an IT audit? A. Audit policy B. Security log C. Security policies D. Configuration settings
Answer: C
Rationale: Reviewing security policies helps determine if controls and procedures align with the organization’s goals and standards.
Question 872
Question 872
When dealing with compliance with the Payment Card Industry-Data Security Standard (PCI-DSS), an organization that shares card holder information with a service provider MUST do which of the following? A. Perform a service provider PCI-DSS assessment on a yearly basis. B. Validate the service provider's PCI-DSS compliance status on a regular basis. C. Validate that the service providers security policies are in alignment with those of the organization. D. Ensure that the service provider updates and tests its Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP) on a yearly basis.
Answer: B
Rationale: PCI-DSS requires organizations to regularly verify that service providers maintain compliant security practices.
Question 873
Question 873
Which of the following provides effective management assurance for a Wireless Local Area Network (WLAN)? A. Maintaining an inventory of authorized Access Points (AP) and connecting devices B. Setting the radio frequency to the minimum range required C. Establishing a Virtual Private Network (VPN) tunnel between the WLAN client device and a VPN concentrator D. Verifying that all default passwords have been changed
Answer: A
Rationale: Maintaining an inventory of authorized devices helps detect rogue access points and unauthorized connections.
Question 874
Question 874
Which of the following MOST influences the design of the organization's electronic monitoring policies? A. Workplace privacy laws B. Level of organizational trust C. Results of background checks D. Business ethical considerations
Answer: A
Rationale: Privacy laws define the limits and legality of monitoring employees’ electronic communications.
Question 875
Question 875
According to best practice, which of the following groups is the MOST effective in performing an information security compliance audit? A. In-house security administrators B. In-house Network Team C. Disaster Recovery (DR) Team D. External consultants
Answer: D
Rationale: External auditors provide objectivity and independence, ensuring unbiased assessment of compliance posture.
Question 876
Question 876
What physical characteristic does a retinal scan biometric device measure? A. The amount of light reflected by the retina B. The size, curvature, and shape of the retina C. The pattern of blood vessels at the back of the eye D. The pattern of light receptors at the back of the eye
Answer: C
Rationale: Retinal scans identify individuals using unique blood vessel patterns within the retina.
Question 877
Question 877
What does secure authentication with logging provide? A. Data integrity B. Access accountability C. Encryption logging format D. Segregation of duties
Answer: B
Rationale: Logging authentication events ensures accountability by recording who accessed systems and when.
Question 878
Question 878
Refer to the information below to answer the question.
A security practitioner detects client-based attacks on the organization’s network. A plan will be necessary to address these concerns. In addition to web browsers, what PRIMARY areas need to be addressed concerning mobile code used for malicious purposes? A. Text editors, database, and Internet phone applications B. Email, presentation, and database applications C. Image libraries, presentation and spreadsheet applications D. Email, media players, and instant messaging applications
Answer: D
Rationale: Client-side threats commonly exploit applications that execute code from external sources—especially email, IM, and media players.
Question 879
Question 879
Which of the following assures that rules are followed in an identity management architecture? A. Policy database B. Digital signature C. Policy decision point D. Policy enforcement point
Answer: D
Rationale: The Policy Enforcement Point (PEP) ensures that identity and access policies are applied as defined by the decision point.
Question 880
Question 880
Which of the following is the MOST difficult to enforce when using cloud computing? A. Data access B. Data backup C. Data recovery D. Data disposal
Answer: D
Rationale: Ensuring complete and verified destruction of data in the cloud is challenging due to shared storage and provider controls.