CISSP Practice Questions 681-700

Q: A client server infrastructure that provides user-to-server authentication describes which one of the following? A. Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) B. User-based authorization C. Kerberos D. X.509

Correct answer: B. User-based authorization ensures authentication occurs between users and servers for each access session.

Q: A system developer has a requirement for an application to check for a secure digital signature before the application is accessed on a user’s laptop. Which security mechanism addresses this requirement? A. Trusted Platform Module (TPM) B. Certificate revocation list (CRL) policy C. Key exchange D. Hardware encryption

Correct answer: A. A TPM securely stores cryptographic keys and verifies the integrity of signed applications before execution.

Q: Which of the following is a term used to describe maintaining ongoing awareness of information security, vulnerabilities, and threats to support organizational risk management decisions? A. Information Security Continuous Monitoring (ISCM) B. Risk Management Framework (RMF) C. Information Sharing & Analysis Centers (ISAC) D. Information Security Management System (ISMS)

Correct answer: A. ISCM continuously assesses security posture to provide real-time visibility into organizational risks.

Q: Which of the following types of firewall only examines the “handshaking” between packets before forwarding traffic? A. Proxy firewalls B. Circuit-level firewalls C. Network Address Translation (NAT) firewalls D. Host-based firewalls

Correct answer: C. Circuit-level firewalls inspect session establishment (the TCP handshake) rather than packet contents.

Q: What is a use for mandatory access control (MAC)? A. Allows for mandatory user identity and passwords based on sensitivity B. Allows for mandatory system administrator access control over objects C. Allows for labeling of sensitive user accounts for access control D. Allows for object security based on sensitivity represented by a label

Correct answer: D. MAC enforces access based on object sensitivity labels, ensuring subjects with lower clearance cannot access higher data.

Q: An organization has developed a way for customers to share information from their wearable devices with each other. Unfortunately, the users were not informed as to what information collected would be shared. What technical controls should be put in place to remedy the privacy issue while still trying to accomplish the organization’s business goals? A. Share only what the organization decides is best. B. Stop sharing data with the other users. C. Default the user to not share any information. D. Inform the user of the sharing feature changes after implemented.

Correct answer: C. Enabling privacy by default (opt-out sharing) ensures user consent and data protection compliance.

Q: Which of the following system components enforces access controls on an object? A. Security perimeter B. Access control matrix C. Trusted domain D. Reference monitor

Correct answer: D. The reference monitor mediates all access attempts between subjects and objects within a secure system.

Q: In setting expectations when reviewing the results of a security test, which of the following statements is MOST important to convey to reviewers? A. The accuracy of testing results can be greatly improved if the target(s) are properly hardened. B. The results of the tests represent a point-in-time assessment of the target(s). C. The deficiencies identified can be corrected immediately. D. The target’s security posture cannot be further compromised.

Correct answer: C. Test results are point-in-time evaluations and may not reflect ongoing security conditions.

Q: What is the benefit of an operating system (OS) feature that is designed to prevent an application from executing code from a non-executable memory region? A. Identifies which security patches still need to be installed on the system B. Reduces the risk of polymorphic viruses from encrypting their payload C. Stops memory resident viruses from propagating their payload D. Helps prevent certain exploits that store code in buffers

Correct answer: B. Data Execution Prevention (DEP) prevents running code in non-executable memory areas, blocking buffer overflow exploits.

Q: What is the overall goal of software security testing? A. Identifying the key security features of the software B. Ensuring all software functions perform as specified C. Reducing vulnerabilities within a software system D. Making software development more agile

Correct answer: B. The main objective is to confirm software performs securely as intended, avoiding unexpected behavior or weaknesses.

Question 681

Question 681

A client server infrastructure that provides user-to-server authentication describes which one of the following?
A. Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)
B. User-based authorization
C. Kerberos
D. X.509

Question 682

Question 682

A system developer has a requirement for an application to check for a secure digital signature before the application is accessed on a user’s laptop. Which security mechanism addresses this requirement?
A. Trusted Platform Module (TPM)
B. Certificate revocation list (CRL) policy
C. Key exchange
D. Hardware encryption

Question 683

Question 683

Which of the following is a term used to describe maintaining ongoing awareness of information security, vulnerabilities, and threats to support organizational risk management decisions?
A. Information Security Continuous Monitoring (ISCM)
B. Risk Management Framework (RMF)
C. Information Sharing & Analysis Centers (ISAC)
D. Information Security Management System (ISMS)

Question 684

Question 684

Which of the following types of firewall only examines the “handshaking” between packets before forwarding traffic?
A. Proxy firewalls
B. Circuit-level firewalls
C. Network Address Translation (NAT) firewalls
D. Host-based firewalls

Question 685

Question 685

What is a use for mandatory access control (MAC)?
A. Allows for mandatory user identity and passwords based on sensitivity
B. Allows for mandatory system administrator access control over objects
C. Allows for labeling of sensitive user accounts for access control
D. Allows for object security based on sensitivity represented by a label

Question 686

Question 686

An organization has developed a way for customers to share information from their wearable devices with each other. Unfortunately, the users were not informed as to what information collected would be shared. What technical controls should be put in place to remedy the privacy issue while still trying to accomplish the organization’s business goals?
A. Share only what the organization decides is best.
B. Stop sharing data with the other users.
C. Default the user to not share any information.
D. Inform the user of the sharing feature changes after implemented.

Question 687

Question 687

Which of the following system components enforces access controls on an object?
A. Security perimeter
B. Access control matrix
C. Trusted domain
D. Reference monitor

Question 688

Question 688

In setting expectations when reviewing the results of a security test, which of the following statements is MOST important to convey to reviewers?
A. The accuracy of testing results can be greatly improved if the target(s) are properly hardened.
B. The results of the tests represent a point-in-time assessment of the target(s).
C. The deficiencies identified can be corrected immediately.
D. The target’s security posture cannot be further compromised.

Question 689

Question 689

What is the benefit of an operating system (OS) feature that is designed to prevent an application from executing code from a non-executable memory region?
A. Identifies which security patches still need to be installed on the system
B. Reduces the risk of polymorphic viruses from encrypting their payload
C. Stops memory resident viruses from propagating their payload
D. Helps prevent certain exploits that store code in buffers

Question 690

Question 690

What is the overall goal of software security testing?
A. Identifying the key security features of the software
B. Ensuring all software functions perform as specified
C. Reducing vulnerabilities within a software system
D. Making software development more agile

Question 691

Question 691

Which of the following implementations will achieve high availability in a website?
A. Disk mirroring of the web server with redundant disk drives in a hardened data center
B. Disk striping of the web server hard drives and large amounts of bandwidth
C. Multiple geographically dispersed web servers that are configured for failover
D. Multiple Domain Name System (DNS) entries resolving to the same web server and large amounts of bandwidth

Question 692

Question 692

Which of the following is an important design feature for the outer door of a mantrap?
A. Allow it to be opened by an alarmed emergency button.
B. Do not allow anyone to enter it alone.
C. Do not allow it to be observed by closed-circuit television (CCTV) cameras.
D. Allow it be opened when the inner door of the mantrap is also open.

Question 693

Question 693

Which of the following is the MOST important rule for digital investigations?
A. Ensure original data is never modified.
B. Ensure systems are powered on.
C. Ensure event logs are rotated.
D. Ensure individual privacy is protected.

Question 694

Question 694

An information security professional is reviewing user access controls on a customer-facing application. The application must have multi-factor authentication (MFA) in place. The application currently requires a username and password to login. Which of the following options would BEST implement MFA?
A. Geolocate the user and compare to previous logins
B. Require a pre-selected number as part of the login
C. Have the user answer a secret question that is known to them
D. Enter an automatically generated number from a hardware token

Question 695

Question 695

Which of the following is a MAJOR consideration in implementing a Voice over Internet Protocol (VoIP) network?
A. Use of Request for Comments (RFC) 1918 addressing.
B. Use of Network Access Control (NAC) on switches.
C. Use of separation for the voice network.
D. Use of a unified messaging.

Question 696

Question 696

During testing, where are the requirements to inform parent organizations, law enforcement, and a computer incident response team documented?
A. Security Assessment Report (SAR)
B. Security assessment plan
C. Unit test results
D. System integration plan

Question 697

Question 697

The security architect has been mandated to assess the security of various brands of mobile devices. At what phase of the product lifecycle would this be MOST likely to occur?
A. Implementation
B. Operations and maintenance
C. Disposal
D. Development

Question 698

Question 698

Which of the following statements is MOST accurate regarding information assets?
A. International Organization for Standardization (ISO) 27001 compliance specifies which information assets must be included in asset inventory.
B. Information assets include any information that is valuable to the organization.
C. Building an information assets register is a resource-intensive job.
D. Information assets inventory is not required for risk assessment.

Question 699

Question 699

Which of the following attack types can be used to compromise the integrity of data during transmission?
A. Synchronization flooding
B. Session hijacking
C. Keylogging
D. Packet sniffing

Question 700

Question 700

A malicious user gains access to unprotected directories on a web server. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause for this information disclosure?
A. Broken authentication management
B. Security misconfiguration
C. Cross-site request forgery (CSRF)
D. Structured Query Language injection (SQLi)