CISSP Practice Questions (441–460)

Answer: C

Rationale: RASP operates inside the application, monitoring behavior at runtime and automatically blocking attacks—providing dynamic, real-time protection.

Answer: C

Rationale: ASLR randomizes memory address space, making it significantly harder for attackers to predict and exploit memory locations during buffer overflow attacks.

Answer: C

Rationale: Risk-based alerts (UEBA/SIEM) detect abnormal account creation in real-time, catching unauthorized privileged accounts immediately instead of waiting for quarterly reviews.

Answer: C

Rationale: During discovery, both sides must present relevant information and evidence. Without a destruction policy, data retention and deletion may appear negligent or spoliated, harming legal credibility.

Answer: A

Rationale: Remote access must be formally established through contract negotiation to define the scope, controls, monitoring, and responsibilities — not based on ad hoc requests.

Answer: A

Rationale: Under privacy frameworks such as OECD or GDPR, the Collection Limitation Principle ensures that data collection occurs only through lawful and fair means with consent where applicable.

Answer: A

Rationale: Labeling depends on identifying the type of media and its sensitivity (e.g., “Confidential,” “Public”). This categorization ensures the proper labeling and handling of data assets.

Answer: B

Rationale: Randomization (data anonymization) permanently removes the link to the original identity. Encryption is reversible and therefore does NOT anonymize data.

Answer: C

Rationale: HR initiates onboarding/offboarding and is the authoritative source for provisioning and deprovisioning user access.

Answer: B

Rationale: Security management programs must align with business goals and processes. Business-process-based risk assessment ensures security supports core operations.

Answer: A

Rationale: Threat modeling is performed during system design to identify potential attack paths and define security requirements early in development.

Answer: D

Rationale: COTS software often includes unnecessary features and configurations that may create vulnerabilities. Implementing a hardened configuration ensures only the required functions, ports, and services are enabled, reducing attack surface.

Answer: C

Rationale: Centralized identity management allows multiple systems and organizations to recognize and trust shared identities across domains — a principle achieved by integrated identity system recognition.

Answer: D

Rationale: RBAC ties permissions to roles instead of individuals, which simplifies authorization management and significantly reduces administrative overhead when users change positions or projects.

Answer: D

Rationale: CISSP identifies data leakage as the most prevalent mobile risk due to lost devices, misconfigured apps, cloud syncing, and insecure storage of sensitive data.

Answer: A

Rationale: RAID-0 (striping) provides high-speed performance by splitting data evenly across multiple drives, though it offers no redundancy — prioritizing speed over fault tolerance.

Answer: D

Rationale: Process risk arises from failures in internal procedures, systems, or operations that affect business processes or value creation. It focuses on inefficiencies or breakdowns in workflow execution.

Answer: C

Rationale: The Wassenaar Arrangement is an international export control regime that covers dual-use technologies and software — including cyber tools and surveillance systems — to prevent misuse.

Answer: B

Rationale: Two-factor authentication (2FA) enhances internal network protection by requiring multiple verification factors before granting access, thereby preventing insider or compromised-credential attacks.

Answer: D

Rationale: The Key Findings section highlights critical vulnerabilities, deficiencies, and areas for improvement — serving as the core of a security assessment’s actionable results.