An Intrusion Detection System (IDS) has recently been deployed in a Demilitarized Zone (DMZ). The IDS detects a flood of malformed packets. Which of the following BEST describes what has occurred? A. Denial of Service (DoS) attack B. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP) spoof C. Buffer overflow D. Ping flood attack
Answer: A
Rationale: A flood of malformed packets typically indicates a DoS attack designed to disrupt service.
Question 322
Question 322
Network-based logging has which advantage over host-based logging when reviewing malicious activity about a victim machine? A. Addresses and protocols of network-based logs are analyzed. B. Host-based system logging has files stored in multiple locations. C. Properly handled network-based logs may be more reliable and valid. D. Network-based systems cannot capture users logging into the console.
Answer: A
Rationale: Network-based logs include source/destination information, revealing attack patterns and traffic flow.
Question 323
Question 323
Which Radio Frequency Interference (RFI) phenomenon associated with bundled cable runs can create information leakage? A. Transference B. Covert channel C. Bleeding D. Cross-talk
Answer: D
Rationale: Cross-talk occurs when signals bleed between cables, potentially leaking sensitive data.
Question 324
Question 324
How should an organization determine the priority of its remediation efforts after a vulnerability assessment has been conducted? A. Use an impact-based approach. B. Use a risk-based approach. C. Use a criticality-based approach. D. Use a threat-based approach.
Answer: B
Rationale: Risk-based prioritization evaluates both impact and likelihood to target the most significant vulnerabilities first.
Question 325
Question 325
Which of the following is a strategy of grouping requirements in developing a Security Test and Evaluation (ST&E)? A. Tactical, strategic, and financial B. Management, operational, and technical C. Documentation, observation, and manual D. Standards, policies, and procedures
Answer: B
Rationale: ST&E organizes requirements under management, operational, and technical control categories.
Question 326
Question 326
Which of the following restricts the ability of an individual to carry out all the steps of a particular process? A. Job rotation B. Separation of duties C. Least privilege D. Mandatory vacations
Answer: B
Rationale: Separation of duties divides responsibilities to prevent a single individual from executing all process steps.
Question 327
Question 327
Which of the following is a document that identifies each item seized in an investigation, including date and time seized, full name and signature or initials of the person who seized the item, and a detailed description of the item? A. Property book B. Chain of custody form C. Search warrant return D. Evidence tag
Answer: D
Rationale: An evidence tag records details and signatures for each seized item, ensuring accountability.
Question 328
Question 328
What does the Maximum Tolerable Downtime (MTD) determine? A. The estimated period of time a business critical database can remain down before customers are affected. B. The fixed length of time a company can endure a disaster without any Disaster Recovery (DR) planning C. The estimated period of time a business can remain interrupted beyond which it risks never recovering D. The fixed length of time in a DR process before redundant systems are engaged
Answer: C
Rationale: MTD defines how long operations can be halted before losses become unrecoverable.
Question 329
Question 329
The PRIMARY purpose of accreditation is to: A. comply with applicable laws and regulations. B. allow senior management to make an informed decision regarding whether to accept the risk of operating the system. C. protect an organization’s sensitive datA. D. verify that all security controls have been implemented properly and are operating in the correct manner.
Answer: B
Rationale: Accreditation formally authorizes system operation based on management’s acceptance of residual risk.
Question 330
Question 330
Which of the following BEST describes a chosen plaintext attack? A. The cryptanalyst can generate ciphertext from arbitrary text. B. The cryptanalyst examines the communication being sent back and forth. C. The cryptanalyst can choose the key and algorithm to mount the attack. D. The cryptanalyst is presented with the ciphertext from which the original message is determined.
Answer: A
Rationale: In a chosen-plaintext attack, the attacker encrypts chosen input to study corresponding ciphertext.
Question 331
Question 331
What operations role is responsible for protecting the enterprise from corrupt or contaminated media? A. Information security practitioner B. Information librarian C. Computer operator D. Network administrator
Answer: B
Rationale: The information librarian manages and safeguards backup and storage media.
Question 332
Question 332
Which of the following BEST describes Recovery Time Objective (RTO)? A. Time of application resumption after disaster B. Time of application verification after disaster. C. Time of data validation after disaster. D. Time of data restoration from backup after disaster.
Answer: A
Rationale: RTO specifies how quickly a system or application must be restored after disruption.
Question 333
Question 333
How does a Host Based Intrusion Detection System (HIDS) identify a potential attack? A. Examines log messages or other indications on the system. B. Monitors alarms sent to the system administrator C. Matches traffic patterns to virus signature files D. Examines the Access Control List (ACL)
Answer: C
Rationale: HIDS compares local activity and traffic patterns to known attack signatures.
Question 334
Question 334
When writing security assessment procedures, what is the MAIN purpose of the test outputs and reports? A. To force the software to fail and document the process B. To find areas of compromise in confidentiality and integrity C. To allow for objective pass or fail decisions D. To identify malware or hidden code within the test results
An employee of a retail company has been granted an extended leave of absence by Human Resources (HR). This information has been formally communicated to the access provisioning team. Which of the following is the BEST action to take? A. Revoke access temporarily. B. Block user access and delete user account after six months. C. Block access to the offices immediately. D. Monitor account usage temporarily.
Answer: A
Rationale: Accounts for users on extended leave should be suspended/disabled per least privilege and AC‑2 Account Management, and re‑enabled upon return.
Question 336
Question 336
Which of the following is the PRIMARY benefit of a formalized information classification program? A. It minimized system logging requirements. B. It supports risk assessment. C. It reduces asset vulnerabilities. D. It drives audit processes.
Answer: B
Rationale: Classification determines information sensitivity, helping guide proper risk assessments.
Question 337
Question 337
Which of the following BEST represents the concept of least privilege? A. Access to an object is denied unless access is specifically allowed. B. Access to an object is only available to the owner. C. Access to an object is allowed unless it is protected by the information security policy. D. Access to an object is only allowed to authenticated users via an Access Control List (ACL).
Answer: A
Rationale: Least privilege restricts access to only what is explicitly authorized and required.
Question 338
Question 338
Which one of the following activities would present a significant security risk to organizations when employing a Virtual Private Network (VPN) solution? A. VPN bandwidth B. Simultaneous connection to other networks C. Users with Internet Protocol (IP) addressing conflicts D. Remote users with administrative rights
Answer: B
Rationale: Split tunneling allows simultaneous public and private connections, risking data leakage.
Question 339
Question 339
An organization’s information security strategic plan MUST be reviewed A. whenever there are significant changes to a major application. B. quarterly, when the organization’s strategic plan is updated. C. whenever there are major changes to the business. D. every three years, when the organization’s strategic plan is updated.
Answer: C
Rationale: Strategic plans must align with business changes to remain effective and relevant.
Question 340
Question 340
Which of the following is a weakness of Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP)? A. Length of Initialization Vector (IV) B. Protection against message replay C. Detection of message tampering D. Built-in provision to rotate keys
Answer: A
Rationale: WEP’s short IV allows key reuse, making it vulnerable to cracking.