CISSP Practice Questions (101–120)

← Back to CISSP Quiz

Question 101

Question 101

Which of the following describes the order in which a digital-forensics process is usually conducted?
A. Ascertain legal authority, agree upon examination strategy, conduct examination, and report results.
B. Ascertain legal authority, conduct investigation, report results, and agree upon examination strategy.
C. Agree upon examination strategy, ascertain legal authority, conduct examination, and report results.
D. Agree upon examination strategy, ascertain legal authority, report results, and conduct examination.

Question 102

Question 102

A CISO tasked with migrating to the cloud must ensure optimal security. Which should be the FIRST consideration?
A. Define the cloud migration roadmap and identify which applications and data should be moved.
B. Ensure the cloud contract clearly defines shared responsibilities.
C. Analyze data repositories to determine control requirements.
D. Request a third-party vendor risk assessment.

Question 103

Question 103

Which of the following is the PRIMARY purpose of due diligence when an organization embarks on a merger or acquisition?
A. Assess the business risks.
B. Formulate alternative strategies.
C. Determine that all parties are equally protected.
D. Provide adequate capability for all parties.

Question 104

Question 104

In a large company, a system administrator needs to assign users access to files using RBAC. Which option is an example of RBAC?
A. Allowing access based on group membership
B. Allowing access based on username
C. Allowing access based on user location
D. Allowing access based on file type

Question 105

Question 105

Which of the following will an organization’s network vulnerability testing process BEST enhance?
A. Firewall log review
B. Asset management
C. Server hardening
D. Code review

Question 106

Question 106

Which of the following would an information security professional use to recognize changes to content, particularly unauthorized changes?
A. File Integrity Checker
B. Security information and event management (SIEM) system
C. Audit Logs
D. Intrusion Detection System (IDS)

Question 107

Question 107

Which of the following measures serves as the BEST means for protecting data on computers, smartphones, and external storage devices when traveling to high-risk countries?
A. Review destination laws, forensically clean devices, and only download sensitive data via VPN
B. Keep laptops and storage devices in the hotel room
C. Use VPN only upon arrival
D. Use MFA to unlock devices

Question 108

Question 108

Data remanence is the biggest threat in which of the following scenarios?
A. Physical disk reused within a datacenter
B. Physical disk degaussed and released
C. Flash drive overwritten and reused
D. Flash drive overwritten and released to third party for destruction

Question 109

Question 109

What are the essential elements of a Risk Assessment Report (RAR)?
A. Table of contents, testing criteria, index
B. Table of contents, chapters, and executive summary
C. Executive summary, graph of risks, and process
D. Executive summary, body of the report, and appendices

Question 110

Question 110

At the destination host, which OSI model layer will discard a segment with a bad checksum in the UDP header?
A. Network
B. Data link
C. Transport
D. Session

Question 111

Question 111

An organization is having an IT audit of a SaaS application to demonstrate control effectiveness over time. Which SOC report will BEST fit their needs?
A. SOC 1 Type 1
B. SOC 1 Type 2
C. SOC 2 Type 1
D. SOC 2 Type 2

Question 112

Question 112

Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for selecting the appropriate level of detail for audit record generation?
A. Lower SDLC cost
B. Facilitate root cause analysis (RCA)
C. Enable corrective action
D. Avoid lengthy reports

Question 113

Question 113

A Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attack was carried out using Mirai malware. Which devices were the PRIMARY sources of attack traffic?
A. Internet of Things (IoT) devices
B. Microsoft Windows hosts
C. Linux web servers
D. Android phones

Question 114

Question 114

An international organization is adopting a SaaS solution. Which compliance standard should it use to assess data security and privacy?
A. HIPAA
B. SOC 2
C. PCI-DSS
D. IATF

Question 115

Question 115

What documentation is produced FIRST when performing a physical loss control process?
A. Deterrent controls list
B. Security standards list
C. Inventory list
D. Asset isolation list

Question 116

Question 116

What is the PRIMARY goal of logical access controls?
A. Restrict access to an information asset
B. Ensure integrity
C. Restrict physical access
D. Ensure availability

Question 117

Question 117

Which attack, if successful, could grant full control of a software-defined networking (SDN) architecture?
A. Sniffing compromised host
B. Sending control messages to open unauthorized flow
C. SSH brute-force on controller
D. RADIUS token replay

Question 118

Question 118

When conducting a third-party risk assessment, which report verifies operating effectiveness of security, availability, and privacy controls?
A. SOC 1 Type 2, Type 2
B. SOC 2 Type 2, Type 2
C. ISO 27001
D. ISO 27002

Question 119

Question 119

A network security engineer must inspect URL traffic, prevent browsing to malicious sites, and log user activity. Which solution fits best?
A. IDS
B. Circuit-level Proxy
C. Application-level Proxy
D. Host-based Firewall

Question 120

Question 120

Which event magnitude is defined as deadly, destructive, and disruptive when a hazard interacts with human vulnerability?
A. Disaster
B. Catastrophe
C. Crisis
D. Accident