An application is used for funds transfer between an organization and a third party. During a security audit, an issue with the business continuity/disaster recovery policy and procedures for this application is found. Which of the following reports should the audit file with the organization? A. Service Organization Control (SOC) 1 B. Statement on Auditing Standards (SAS) 70 C. Service Organization Control (SOC) 2 D. Statement on Auditing Standards (SAS) 70-1
Answer: C
Rationale: SOC 2 focuses on controls relevant to security, availability, processing integrity, confidentiality, and privacy — directly relevant to DR and BC policies. SOC 1 focuses on financial reporting only.
Question 62
Question 62
Which of the following determines how traffic should flow based on the status of the infrastructure layer? A. Traffic plane B. Application plane C. Data plane D. Control plane
Answer: A
Rationale: The traffic (forwarding) plane handles how packets are directed based on network state. The control plane manages routing decisions, but actual flow direction (forwarding) occurs in the traffic plane per CISSP networking fundamentals.
Question 63
Question 63
A software development company has a short timeline in which to deliver a software product. The software development team decides to use open-source software libraries to reduce the development time. What concept should software developers consider when using open-source software libraries? A. Open-source libraries contain known vulnerabilities, and adversaries regularly exploit those vulnerabilities in the wild. B. Open-source libraries can be used by everyone, and there is a common understanding that the vulnerabilities in these libraries will not be exploited. C. Open-source libraries are constantly updated, making it unlikely that a vulnerability exists for an adversary to exploit. D. Open-source libraries contain unknown vulnerabilities, so they should not be used.
Answer: A
Rationale: CISSP emphasizes supply-chain risk — open-source components often have publicly known CVEs that attackers exploit quickly. Developers must validate and patch dependencies; assuming safety (B–D) is incorrect.
Question 64
Question 64
Which of the following criteria ensures information is protected relative to its importance to the organization? A. The value of the data to the organization’s senior management B. Legal requirements, value, criticality, and sensitivity to unauthorized disclosure or modification C. Legal requirements determined by the organization headquarters’ location D. Organizational stakeholders, with classification approved by the management board
Answer: D
Rationale: Information classification should be stakeholder-driven and formally approved by management to reflect organizational importance — aligning with governance standards. CISSP stresses top-level endorsement for consistent classification frameworks.
Question 65
Question 65
Which of the following are the BEST characteristics of security metrics? A. They are generalized and provide a broad overview. B. They use acronyms and abbreviations to be concise. C. They use bar charts and Venn diagrams. D. They are consistently measured and quantitatively expressed.
Answer: D
Rationale: Good security metrics must be repeatable, consistent, and measurable — quantitative metrics enable trend analysis. Visualization or conciseness (B–C) are presentation features, not defining characteristics.
Question 66
Question 66
When network management is outsourced to third parties, which of the following is the MOST effective method of protecting critical data assets? A. Provide links to security policies B. Log all activities associated with sensitive systems C. Employ strong access controls D. Confirm that confidentiality agreements are signed
Answer: C
Rationale: Strong access control enforcement prevents unauthorized access and limits exposure when external entities manage systems. Contracts (D) and logs (B) are supplementary safeguards but do not directly prevent compromise.
Question 67
Question 67
What security principle addresses the issue of “Security by Obscurity”? A. Open design B. Segregation of duties (SoD) C. Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) D. Access control
Answer: A
Rationale: CISSP explicitly defines Open Design as the principle that security should not depend on secrecy of design — countering “security by obscurity.” Robustness comes from tested and transparent mechanisms, not hidden details.
Question 68
Question 68
Which of the following is a Key Performance Indicator (KPI) for a security training and awareness program? A. The number of security audits performed B. The number of attendees at security training events C. The number of security training materials created D. The number of security controls implemented
Answer: B
Rationale: KPIs for awareness programs track engagement and participation, such as attendance rates or completion metrics. The number of materials or controls does not measure effectiveness or reach.
Question 69
Question 69
Which of the following is a common risk with fiber-optic communications, and what is the associated mitigation measure? A. Data emanation; deploying Category (CAT) 6 and higher cable wherever feasible B. Light leakage; deploying shielded cable wherever feasible C. Cable damage; deploying ring architecture wherever feasible D. Electronic eavesdropping; deploying end-to-end encryption wherever feasible
Answer: B
Rationale: Fiber-optic systems risk light leakage at connectors, which can expose data through tapping. Shielded or properly terminated cables prevent leakage — a classic CISSP physical communications safeguard.
Question 70
Question 70
Why is it important that senior management clearly communicates the formal Maximum Tolerable Downtime (MTD) decision? A. To provide each manager with precise direction on selecting an appropriate recovery alternative B. To demonstrate to the regulatory bodies that the company takes business continuity seriously C. To demonstrate to the board of directors that senior management is committed to continuity recovery efforts D. To provide a formal declaration from senior management as required by internal audit to demonstrate sound business practices
Answer: D
Rationale: CISSP’s business continuity planning requires MTD to be approved and declared by senior management. Internal audit references this to validate alignment between recovery objectives and business tolerance.
Question 71
Question 71
An information-technology (IT) employee who travels frequently to various sites remotely connects to an organization. Which of the following solutions BEST serves as a secure control mechanism to meet the organization’s requirements? A. Update the firewall rules to include the static IP addresses of the locations where the employee connects from. B. Install a third-party screen-sharing solution that provides remote connection from a public website. C. Implement a Dynamic Domain Name Services (DDNS) account to initiate a virtual private network (VPN) using the DDNS record. D. Install a bastion host in the demilitarized zone (DMZ) and allow multi-factor authentication (MFA) access.
Answer: D
Rationale: A bastion host hardened in a DMZ and protected by MFA provides a secure access gateway. Static IPs and DDNS introduce risk, and screen-sharing tools bypass enterprise controls.
Question 72
Question 72
Which of the following would need to be configured to ensure a device with a specific MAC address is always assigned the same IP address from DHCP? A. Scope options B. Reservation C. Dynamic assignment D. Exclusion
Answer: B
Rationale: A DHCP reservation binds a MAC address to a fixed IP, ensuring consistency. This is commonly used for servers, printers, and security devices.
Question 73
Question 73
Which of the following is the MAIN difference between a network-based firewall and a host-based firewall? A. A network-based firewall is stateful, while a host-based firewall is stateless. B. A network-based firewall controls traffic passing through the device, while a host-based firewall controls traffic destined for the device. C. A network-based firewall verifies network traffic, while a host-based firewall verifies processes and applications. D. A network-based firewall blocks network intrusions, while a host-based firewall blocks malware.
Answer: B
Rationale: CISSP defines the distinction as scope of protection — network firewalls monitor transit traffic, while host firewalls protect inbound/outbound traffic of the local host itself.
Question 74
Question 74
Which type of disaster recovery plan (DRP) testing carries the MOST operational risk? A. Cutover B. Walkthrough C. Tabletop D. Parallel
Answer: A
Rationale: Cutover DR testing carries the highest operational risk because production is actually switched to the DR site; other methods (walkthrough, checklist, simulation) are lower risk.
Question 75
Question 75
A colleague who recently left the organization asked a security professional for a copy of the organization’s confidential incident management policy. Which of the following is the BEST response to this request? A. Email the policy to the colleague as they were already part of the organization and familiar with it. B. Do not acknowledge receiving the request from the former colleague and ignore them. C. Access the policy on a company-issued device and let the former colleague view the screen. D. Submit the request using company official channels to ensure the policy is okay to distribute.
Answer: D
Rationale: Confidential internal policies should only be released through approved channels and with appropriate authorization. The security professional must not unilaterally disclose or ignore the request, but instead route it through official processes so the proper authority (e.g., data owner, legal, or management) can decide whether the information can be shared.
Question 76
Question 76
Before implementing an internet-facing router, a network administrator ensures that the equipment is baselined/hardened according to approved configurations and settings. This action provides protection against which of the following attacks? A. Blind spoofing B. Media Access Control (MAC) flooding C. SQL injection (SQLi) D. Ransomware
Answer: A
Rationale: Hardening an internet-facing router focuses on network-layer protections such as disabling unnecessary services, enforcing anti-spoofing filters, and applying secure configurations. This directly mitigates IP spoofing attacks (including blind spoofing). MAC flooding is primarily a switch-layer issue, while SQL injection and ransomware are higher-layer application or endpoint concerns.
Question 77
Question 77
Which of the following terms BEST describes a system that allows a user to log in and access multiple related servers and applications? A. Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) B. Federated Identity Management (FIM) C. Single Sign-On (SSO) D. Multi-factor Authentication (MFA)
Answer: C
Rationale: Single Sign-On (SSO) allows a user to authenticate once and then access multiple related systems or applications without re-authenticating. Federated identity extends SSO across organizational boundaries, but the generic description of accessing multiple related servers and applications after one login is classic SSO.
Question 78
Question 78
Which of the following poses the GREATEST privacy risk to personally identifiable information (PII) when disposing of an office printer or copier? A. The device could contain a document with PII on the platen glass. B. Organizational network configuration information could still be present within the device. C. A hard disk drive (HDD) in the device could contain PII. D. The device transfer roller could contain imprints of PII.
Answer: B
Rationale: While many printers store temporary data, the embedded HDD retains entire image files and cached data, which could include PII. CISSP data sanitization guidance highlights removable or built-in storage as the highest disposal risk.
Question 79
Question 79
In systems security engineering, what does the security principle of modularity provide? A. Documentation of functions B. Isolated functions and data C. Secure distribution of programs and data D. Minimal access to perform a function
Answer: B
Rationale: Modularity divides systems into isolated, self‑contained components, aiding containment, fault isolation, and secure boundaries.
Question 80
Question 80
Dumpster diving is a technique used in which stage of penetration testing methodology? A. Attack B. Discovery C. Reporting D. Planning
Answer: B
Rationale: Dumpster diving occurs during reconnaissance or discovery, where the tester gathers publicly accessible or discarded information before exploitation. It’s passive intelligence collection.