A continuous information security monitoring program can BEST reduce risk through which of the following? A. Collecting security events and correlating them to identify anomalies B. Facilitating system-wide visibility into the activities of critical user accounts C. Encompassing people, process, and technology D. Logging both scheduled and unscheduled system changes
Answer: A
Rationale: Continuous monitoring relies on collecting, aggregating, and correlating security events to rapidly identify anomalies and emerging threats, reducing risk in real time.
Question 202
Question 202
An organization is found lacking the ability to properly establish performance indicators for its Web hosting solution during an audit. What would be the MOST probable cause? A. Absence of a Business Intelligence (BI) solution B. Inadequate cost modeling C. Improper deployment of the Service-Oriented Architecture (SOA) D. Insufficient Service Level Agreement (SLA)
Answer: D
Rationale: Without a well-defined SLA, performance expectations and measurable indicators cannot be properly established.
Question 203
Question 203
What is the PRIMARY reason for implementing change management? A. Certify and approve releases to the environment B. Provide version rollbacks for system changes C. Ensure that all applications are approved D. Ensure accountability for changes to the environment
Answer: D
Rationale: Change management ensures traceability and accountability for every modification within the environment.
Question 204
Question 204
What should be the FIRST action to protect the chain of evidence when a desktop computer is involved? A. Take the computer to a forensic lab B. Make a copy of the hard drive C. Start documenting D. Turn off the computer
Answer: C
Rationale: Documentation is the first step in maintaining chain of custody, preserving the integrity of evidence.
Question 205
Question 205
Which of the following is the BEST method to prevent malware from being introduced into a production environment? A. Purchase software from a limited list of retailers B. Verify the hash key or certificate key of all updates C. Do not permit programs, patches, or updates from the Internet D. Test all new software in a segregated environment
Answer: D
Rationale: Testing software in a segregated environment isolates it from production, preventing malware spread if the software is compromised.
Question 206
Question 206
Internet Protocol (IP) source address spoofing is used to defeat A. address-based authentication. B. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP). C. Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (RARP). D. Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) hijacking.
Answer: A
Rationale: IP spoofing manipulates the source address to bypass or defeat systems that rely on address-based authentication.
Question 207
Question 207
Which of the following is the FIRST action that a system administrator should take when it is revealed during a penetration test that everyone in an organization has unauthorized access to a server holding sensitive data? A. Immediately document the finding and report to senior management. B. Use system privileges to alter the permissions to secure the server C. Continue the testing to its completion and then inform IT management D. Terminate the penetration test and pass the finding to the server management team
Answer: D
Rationale: Penetration testing rules require stopping the test and immediately escalating critical security findings to the responsible system team so the vulnerability can be remediated.
Question 208
Question 208
Which of the following is a limitation of the Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) as it relates to conducting code review? A. It has normalized severity ratings. B. It has many worksheets and practices to implement. C. It aims to calculate the risk of published vulnerabilities. D. It requires a robust risk management framework to be put in place.
Answer: C
Rationale: CVSS focuses on quantifying severity of known, published vulnerabilities—not performing or analyzing code directly.
Question 209
Question 209
To prevent inadvertent disclosure of restricted information, which of the following would be the LEAST effective process for eliminating data prior to the media being discarded? A. Multiple-pass overwriting B. Degaussing C. High-level formatting D. Physical destruction
Answer: C
Rationale: High-level formatting does not remove underlying data; it only resets the file system structure, leaving recoverable data.
Question 210
Question 210
A vulnerability test on an Information System (IS) is conducted to A. exploit security weaknesses in the IS. B. measure system performance on systems with weak security controls. C. evaluate the effectiveness of security controls. D. prepare for Disaster Recovery (DR) planning.
Answer: C
Rationale: Vulnerability testing assesses how effective existing security controls are in identifying and mitigating weaknesses.
Question 211
Question 211
An organization allows ping traffic into and out of their network. An attacker has installed a program on the network that uses the payload portion of the ping packet to move data into and out of the network. What type of attack has the organization experienced? A. Data leakage B. Unfiltered channel C. Data emanation D. Covert channel
Answer: D
Rationale: A covert channel hides unauthorized data transfer within legitimate traffic, such as ICMP ping payloads.
Question 212
Question 212
Contingency plan exercises are intended to do which of the following? A. Train personnel in roles and responsibilities B. Validate service level agreements C. Train maintenance personnel D. Validate operation metrics
Answer: A
Rationale: Contingency exercises test personnel readiness and ensure all roles and responsibilities are understood during disruptions.
Question 213
Question 213
The key benefits of a signed and encrypted e-mail include A. confidentiality, authentication, and authorization. B. confidentiality, non-repudiation, and authentication. C. non-repudiation, authorization, and authentication. D. non-repudiation, confidentiality, and authorization.
Answer: B
Rationale: Digital signatures and encryption ensure confidentiality, authentication, and non-repudiation in email communication.
Question 214
Question 214
The Structured Query Language (SQL) implements Discretionary Access Controls (DAC) using A. INSERT and DELETE. B. GRANT and REVOKE. C. PUBLIC and PRIVATE. D. ROLLBACK and TERMINATE.
Answer: B
Rationale: SQL uses GRANT and REVOKE statements to assign and remove user privileges, implementing DAC.
Question 215
Question 215
Which of the following is considered best practice for preventing e-mail spoofing? A. Spam filtering B. Cryptographic signature C. Uniform Resource Locator (URL) filtering D. Reverse Domain Name Service (DNS) lookup
Answer: B
Rationale: Using cryptographic signatures such as DKIM ensures message authenticity and prevents spoofing.
Question 216
Question 216
An advantage of link encryption in a communications network is that it A. makes key management and distribution easier. B. protects data from start to finish through the entire network. C. improves the efficiency of the transmission. D. encrypts all information, including headers and routing information.
Answer: D
Rationale: Link encryption encrypts entire frames—including headers—at each hop, securing all transmitted data.
Question 217
Question 217
The process of mutual authentication involves a computer system authenticating a user and authenticating the A. user to the audit process. B. computer system to the user. C. user's access to all authorized objects. D. computer system to the audit process.
Answer: B
Rationale: Mutual authentication confirms both parties—the user and the system—verify each other’s identities.
Question 218
Question 218
Which of the following is the best practice for testing a Business Continuity Plan (BCP)? A. Test before the IT Audit B. Test when environment changes C. Test after installation of security patches D. Test after implementation of system patches
Answer: B
Rationale: BCPs should be tested whenever significant environmental or operational changes occur to ensure continued effectiveness.
Question 219
Question 219
The PRIMARY purpose of a security awareness program is to A. ensure that everyone understands the organization's policies and procedures. B. communicate that access to information will be granted on a need-to-know basis. C. warn all users that access to all systems will be monitored on a daily basis. D. comply with regulations related to data and information protection.
Answer: A
Rationale: Security awareness training educates all users about organizational policies and proper security behavior.
Question 220
Question 220
A practice that permits the owner of a data object to grant other users access to that object would usually provide A. Mandatory Access Control (MAC). B. owner-administered control. C. owner-dependent access control. D. Discretionary Access Control (DAC).
Answer: D
Rationale: DAC allows data owners to decide who can access their objects and what permissions are granted.