CISSP Practice Questions (241–260)

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Question 241

Question 241

What is the MOST important purpose of testing the Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP)?
A. Evaluating the efficiency of the plan
B. Identifying the benchmark required for restoration
C. Validating the effectiveness of the plan
D. Determining the Recovery Time Objective (RTO)

Question 242

Question 242

Passive Infrared Sensors (PIR) used in a non-climate controlled environment should
A. reduce the detected object temperature in relation to the background temperature.
B. increase the detected object temperature in relation to the background temperature.
C. automatically compensate for variance in background temperature.
D. detect objects of a specific temperature independent of the background temperature.

Question 243

Question 243

When constructing an Information Protection Policy (IPP), it is important that the stated rules are necessary, adequate, and
A. flexible.
B. confidential.
C. focused.
D. achievable.

Question 244

Question 244

Which of the following does Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP) support?
A. Multicast and broadcast messages
B. Coordination of IEEE 802.11 protocols
C. Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) systems
D. Synchronization of multiple devices

Question 245

Question 245

Which of the following BEST represents the principle of open design?
A. Disassembly, analysis, or reverse engineering will reveal the security functionality of the computer system.
B. Algorithms must be protected to ensure the security and interoperability of the designed system.
C. A knowledgeable user should have limited privileges on the system to prevent their ability to compromise security capabilities.
D. The security of a mechanism should not depend on the secrecy of its design or implementation.

Question 246

Question 246

Which of the following statements is TRUE of black box testing?
A. Only the functional specifications are known to the test planner.
B. Only the source code and the design documents are known to the test planner.
C. Only the source code and functional specifications are known to the test planner.
D. Only the design documents and the functional specifications are known to the test planner.

Question 247

Question 247

Two companies wish to share electronic inventory and purchase orders in a supplier and client relationship. What is the BEST security solution for them?
A. Write a Service Level Agreement (SLA) for the two companies.
B. Set up a Virtual Private Network (VPN) between the two companies.
C. Configure a firewall at the perimeter of each of the two companies.
D. Establish a File Transfer Protocol (FTP) connection between the two companies.

Question 248

Question 248

Which Hyper Text Markup Language 5 (HTML5) option presents a security challenge for network data leakage prevention and/or monitoring?
A. Cross Origin Resource Sharing (CORS)
B. WebSockets
C. Document Object Model (DOM) trees
D. Web Interface Definition Language (IDL)

Question 249

Question 249

What do Capability Maturity Models (CMM) serve as a benchmark for in an organization?
A. Experience in the industry
B. Definition of security profiles
C. Human resource planning efforts
D. Procedures in systems development

Question 250

Question 250

Refer to the information below to answer the question.

A new employee is given a laptop computer with full administrator access. This employee does not have a personal computer at home and has a child that uses the computer to send and receive e-mail, search the web, and use instant messaging. The organization’s Information Technology (IT) department discovers that a peer-to-peer program has been installed on the computer using the employee's access.

Which of the following solutions would have MOST likely detected the use of peer-to-peer programs when the computer was connected to the office network?
A. Anti-virus software
B. Intrusion Prevention System (IPS)
C. Anti-spyware software
D. Integrity checking software

Question 251

Question 251

Which of the following describes the concept of a Single Sign-On (SSO) system?
A. Users are authenticated to one system at a time.
B. Users are identified to multiple systems with several credentials.
C. Users are authenticated to multiple systems with one login.
D. Only one user is using the system at a time.

Question 252

Question 252

Which of the following provides effective management assurance for a Wireless Local Area Network (WLAN)?
A. Maintaining an inventory of authorized Access Points (AP) and connecting devices
B. Setting the radio frequency to the minimum range required
C. Establishing a Virtual Private Network (VPN) tunnel between the WLAN client device and a VPN concentrator
D. Verifying that all default passwords have been changed

Question 253

Question 253

Refer to the information below to answer the question.

In a Multilevel Security (MLS) system, the following sensitivity labels are used in increasing levels of sensitivity: restricted, confidential, secret, top secret. Table A lists the clearance levels for four users, while Table B lists the security classes of four different files.

Which of the following is true according to the star property (*property)?
A. User D can write to File 1
B. User B can write to File 1
C. User A can write to File 1
D. User C can write to File 1

Question 254

Question 254

Which item below is a federated identity standard?
A. 802.11i
B. Kerberos
C. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)
D. Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML)

Question 255

Question 255

Which of the following assures that rules are followed in an identity management architecture?
A. Policy database
B. Digital signature
C. Policy decision point
D. Policy enforcement point

Question 256

Question 256

Refer to the information below to answer the question.

A security practitioner detects client-based attacks on the organization’s network. A plan will be necessary to address these concerns. What MUST the plan include in order to reduce client-side exploitation?
A. Approved web browsers
B. Network firewall procedures
C. Proxy configuration
D. Employee education

Question 257

Question 257

Which of the following is required to determine classification and ownership?
A. System and data resources are properly identified
B. Access violations are logged and audited
C. Data file references are identified and linked
D. System security controls are fully integrated

Question 258

Question 258

Refer to the information below to answer the question.

A large, multinational organization has decided to outsource a portion of their Information Technology (IT) organization to a third-party provider’s facility. This provider will be responsible for the design, development, testing, and support of several critical, customer-based applications used by the organization.

The third party needs to have
A. processes that are identical to that of the organization doing the outsourcing.
B. access to the original personnel that were on staff at the organization.
C. the ability to maintain all of the applications in languages they are familiar with.
D. access to the skill sets consistent with the programming languages used by the organization.

Question 259

Question 259

What is the PRIMARY advantage of using automated application security testing tools?
A. The application can be protected in the production environment.
B. Large amounts of code can be tested using fewer resources.
C. The application will fail less when tested using these tools.
D. Detailed testing of code functions can be performed.

Question 260

Question 260

What is a common challenge when implementing Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML) for identity integration between on-premise environment and an external identity provider service?
A. Some users are not provisioned into the service.
B. SAML tokens are provided by the on-premise identity provider.
C. Single users cannot be revoked from the service.
D. SAML tokens contain user information.