What is the MOST important purpose of testing the Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP)? A. Evaluating the efficiency of the plan B. Identifying the benchmark required for restoration C. Validating the effectiveness of the plan D. Determining the Recovery Time Objective (RTO)
Answer: C
Rationale: Testing validates that recovery procedures actually work and meet organizational objectives.
Question 242
Question 242
Passive Infrared Sensors (PIR) used in a non-climate controlled environment should A. reduce the detected object temperature in relation to the background temperature. B. increase the detected object temperature in relation to the background temperature. C. automatically compensate for variance in background temperature. D. detect objects of a specific temperature independent of the background temperature.
Answer: C
Rationale: Auto-compensation allows PIR sensors to remain accurate despite temperature fluctuations.
Question 243
Question 243
When constructing an Information Protection Policy (IPP), it is important that the stated rules are necessary, adequate, and A. flexible. B. confidential. C. focused. D. achievable.
Answer: D
Rationale: Policies must be realistic and achievable to ensure compliance and enforceability.
Question 244
Question 244
Which of the following does Temporal Key Integrity Protocol (TKIP) support? A. Multicast and broadcast messages B. Coordination of IEEE 802.11 protocols C. Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) systems D. Synchronization of multiple devices
Answer: C
Rationale: TKIP was developed as a WEP enhancement to improve wireless encryption.
Question 245
Question 245
Which of the following BEST represents the principle of open design? A. Disassembly, analysis, or reverse engineering will reveal the security functionality of the computer system. B. Algorithms must be protected to ensure the security and interoperability of the designed system. C. A knowledgeable user should have limited privileges on the system to prevent their ability to compromise security capabilities. D. The security of a mechanism should not depend on the secrecy of its design or implementation.
Answer: D
Rationale: Open design holds that system security should rely on key secrecy, not hidden design.
Question 246
Question 246
Which of the following statements is TRUE of black box testing? A. Only the functional specifications are known to the test planner. B. Only the source code and the design documents are known to the test planner. C. Only the source code and functional specifications are known to the test planner. D. Only the design documents and the functional specifications are known to the test planner.
Answer: A
Rationale: In black-box testing, testers use functional specs without internal code knowledge.
Question 247
Question 247
Two companies wish to share electronic inventory and purchase orders in a supplier and client relationship. What is the BEST security solution for them? A. Write a Service Level Agreement (SLA) for the two companies. B. Set up a Virtual Private Network (VPN) between the two companies. C. Configure a firewall at the perimeter of each of the two companies. D. Establish a File Transfer Protocol (FTP) connection between the two companies.
Answer: B
Rationale: A VPN creates a secure encrypted channel for inter-company data exchange.
Question 248
Question 248
Which Hyper Text Markup Language 5 (HTML5) option presents a security challenge for network data leakage prevention and/or monitoring? A. Cross Origin Resource Sharing (CORS) B. WebSockets C. Document Object Model (DOM) trees D. Web Interface Definition Language (IDL)
Answer: B
Rationale: WebSockets enable persistent two-way connections that can bypass traditional data monitoring controls.
Question 249
Question 249
What do Capability Maturity Models (CMM) serve as a benchmark for in an organization? A. Experience in the industry B. Definition of security profiles C. Human resource planning efforts D. Procedures in systems development
Answer: D
Rationale: CMM benchmarks the maturity and consistency of organizational development processes.
Question 250
Question 250
Refer to the information below to answer the question.
A new employee is given a laptop computer with full administrator access. This employee does not have a personal computer at home and has a child that uses the computer to send and receive e-mail, search the web, and use instant messaging. The organization’s Information Technology (IT) department discovers that a peer-to-peer program has been installed on the computer using the employee's access.
Which of the following solutions would have MOST likely detected the use of peer-to-peer programs when the computer was connected to the office network? A. Anti-virus software B. Intrusion Prevention System (IPS) C. Anti-spyware software D. Integrity checking software
Answer: B
Rationale: An IPS inspects traffic patterns and can detect unauthorized peer-to-peer connections.
Question 251
Question 251
Which of the following describes the concept of a Single Sign-On (SSO) system? A. Users are authenticated to one system at a time. B. Users are identified to multiple systems with several credentials. C. Users are authenticated to multiple systems with one login. D. Only one user is using the system at a time.
Answer: C
Rationale: SSO enables users to log in once and access multiple systems using that same credential set.
Question 252
Question 252
Which of the following provides effective management assurance for a Wireless Local Area Network (WLAN)? A. Maintaining an inventory of authorized Access Points (AP) and connecting devices B. Setting the radio frequency to the minimum range required C. Establishing a Virtual Private Network (VPN) tunnel between the WLAN client device and a VPN concentrator D. Verifying that all default passwords have been changed
Answer: A
Rationale: Maintaining an updated inventory of authorized APs prevents rogue device connections.
Question 253
Question 253
Refer to the information below to answer the question.
In a Multilevel Security (MLS) system, the following sensitivity labels are used in increasing levels of sensitivity: restricted, confidential, secret, top secret. Table A lists the clearance levels for four users, while Table B lists the security classes of four different files.
Which of the following is true according to the star property (*property)? A. User D can write to File 1 B. User B can write to File 1 C. User A can write to File 1 D. User C can write to File 1
Answer: C
Rationale: The *property prevents writing data to lower classifications; User A’s clearance allows compliant writing.
Question 254
Question 254
Which item below is a federated identity standard? A. 802.11i B. Kerberos C. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) D. Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML)
Answer: D
Rationale: SAML is the key XML-based standard for exchanging authentication data in federated identity systems.
Question 255
Question 255
Which of the following assures that rules are followed in an identity management architecture? A. Policy database B. Digital signature C. Policy decision point D. Policy enforcement point
Answer: D
Rationale: The policy enforcement point ensures policies and access decisions are properly applied.
Question 256
Question 256
Refer to the information below to answer the question.
A security practitioner detects client-based attacks on the organization’s network. A plan will be necessary to address these concerns. What MUST the plan include in order to reduce client-side exploitation? A. Approved web browsers B. Network firewall procedures C. Proxy configuration D. Employee education
Answer: D
Rationale: User awareness and education directly reduce client-side exploitation by minimizing unsafe behaviors.
Question 257
Question 257
Which of the following is required to determine classification and ownership? A. System and data resources are properly identified B. Access violations are logged and audited C. Data file references are identified and linked D. System security controls are fully integrated
Answer: A
Rationale: Properly identifying resources is the prerequisite for assigning ownership and classification levels.
Question 258
Question 258
Refer to the information below to answer the question.
A large, multinational organization has decided to outsource a portion of their Information Technology (IT) organization to a third-party provider’s facility. This provider will be responsible for the design, development, testing, and support of several critical, customer-based applications used by the organization.
The third party needs to have A. processes that are identical to that of the organization doing the outsourcing. B. access to the original personnel that were on staff at the organization. C. the ability to maintain all of the applications in languages they are familiar with. D. access to the skill sets consistent with the programming languages used by the organization.
Answer: D
Rationale: The provider must have staff skilled in the organization’s specific programming languages to properly maintain applications.
Question 259
Question 259
What is the PRIMARY advantage of using automated application security testing tools? A. The application can be protected in the production environment. B. Large amounts of code can be tested using fewer resources. C. The application will fail less when tested using these tools. D. Detailed testing of code functions can be performed.
Answer: B
Rationale: Automation allows large codebases to be tested efficiently without extensive manual effort.
Question 260
Question 260
What is a common challenge when implementing Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML) for identity integration between on-premise environment and an external identity provider service? A. Some users are not provisioned into the service. B. SAML tokens are provided by the on-premise identity provider. C. Single users cannot be revoked from the service. D. SAML tokens contain user information.
Answer: A
Rationale: Proper user provisioning is a frequent integration challenge in SAML-based identity federation.