The PRIMARY purpose of accreditation is to: A. comply with applicable laws and regulations. B. allow senior management to make an informed decision regarding whether to accept the risk of operating the system. C. protect an organization’s sensitive data. D. verify that all security controls have been implemented properly and are operating in the correct manner.
Answer: B
Rationale: Accreditation documents management’s formal acceptance of residual risk associated with system operation.
Question 982
Question 982
Which of the following media sanitization techniques is MOST likely to be effective for an organization using public cloud services? A. Low-level formatting B. Secure-grade overwrite erasure C. Cryptographic erasure D. Drive degaussing
Answer: B
Rationale: Overwrite erasure ensures logical deletion in shared cloud environments without physical media access.
Question 983
Question 983
Between which pair of Open System Interconnection (OSI) Reference Model layers are routers used as a communications device? A. Transport and Session B. Data-Link and Transport C. Network and Session D. Physical and Data-Link
Answer: B
Rationale: Routers operate primarily at the Network Layer but connect to the Data-Link Layer for physical transmission of packets between networks.
Question 984
Question 984
Which of the following BEST describes a chosen plaintext attack? A. The cryptanalyst can generate ciphertext from arbitrary text. B. The cryptanalyst examines the communication being sent back and forth. C. The cryptanalyst can choose the key and algorithm to mount the attack. D. The cryptanalyst is presented with the ciphertext from which the original message is determined.
Answer: A
Rationale: In a chosen plaintext attack, the attacker can encrypt arbitrary plaintexts to study their ciphertext output.
Question 985
Question 985
What operations role is responsible for protecting the enterprise from corrupt or contaminated media? A. Information security practitioner B. Information librarian C. Computer operator D. Network administrator
Answer: B
Rationale: The information librarian ensures storage media are clean, labeled, and managed to prevent corruption and contamination.
Question 986
Question 986
Which of the following BEST describes Recovery Time Objective (RTO)? A. Time of application resumption after disaster B. Time of application verification after disaster C. Time of data validation after disaster D. Time of data restoration from backup after disaster
Answer: A
Rationale: RTO is the targeted duration for restoring a business process or system after disruption.
Question 987
Question 987
Which of the following command line tools can be used in the reconnaissance phase of a network vulnerability assessment? A. dig B. ipconfig C. ifconfig D. nbstat
Answer: A
Rationale: dig is used for DNS interrogation during reconnaissance to gather domain and IP information.
Question 988
Question 988
In general, servers that are facing the Internet should be placed in a demilitarized zone (DMZ). What is MAIN purpose of the DMZ? A. Reduced risk to internal systems. B. Prepare the server for potential attacks. C. Mitigate the risk associated with the exposed server. D. Bypass the need for a firewall.
Answer: A
Rationale: A DMZ isolates public-facing systems to prevent direct access to internal networks, reducing internal exposure.
Question 989
Question 989
An employee of a retail company has been granted an extended leave of absence by Human Resources (HR). This information has been formally communicated to the access provisioning team. Which of the following is the BEST action to take? A. Revoke access temporarily. B. Block user access and delete user account after six months. C. Block access to the offices immediately. D. Monitor account usage temporarily.
Answer: A
Rationale: Accounts for users on extended leave should be suspended/disabled per least privilege and AC‑2 Account Management, and re‑enabled upon return.
Question 990
Question 990
Which of the following BEST represents the concept of least privilege? A. Access to an object is denied unless access is specifically allowed. B. Access to an object is only available to the owner. C. Access to an object is allowed unless it is protected by the information security policy. D. Access to an object is only allowed to authenticated users via an Access Control List (ACL).
Answer: A
Rationale: Least privilege ensures users have only the minimum access necessary to perform their duties.
Question 991
Question 991
Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for employing physical security personnel at entry points in facilities where card access is in operation? A. To verify that only employees have access to the facility. B. To identify present hazards requiring remediation. C. To monitor staff movement throughout the facility. D. To provide a safe environment for employees.
Answer: D
Rationale: Security guards ensure safety, respond to incidents, and complement electronic access controls.
Question 992
Question 992
Which of the following is BEST suited for exchanging authentication and authorization messages in a multi-party decentralized environment? A. Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP) B. Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML) C. Internet Mail Access Protocol D. Transport Layer Security (TLS)
Answer: B
Rationale: SAML enables federated identity across multiple independent entities or organizations.
Question 993
Question 993
A security architect plans to reference a Mandatory Access Control (MAC) model for implementation. This indicates that which of the following properties are being prioritized? A. Confidentiality B. Integrity C. Availability D. Accessibility
Answer: A
Rationale: Biometric authentication, such as fingerprints or facial recognition, is based on 'something you are'—one of the three main authentication factors.
Question 994
Question 994
Which of the following is a characteristic of the initialization vector when using Data Encryption Standard (DES)? A. It must be known to both sender and receiver. B. It can be transmitted in the clear as a random number. C. It must be retained until the last block is transmitted. D. It can be used to encrypt and decrypt information.
Answer: B
Rationale: DES uses an IV that can be transmitted openly; its purpose is to randomize encryption output.
Question 995
Question 995
Which of the following are effective countermeasures against passive network-layer attacks? A. Federated security and authenticated access controls B. Trusted software development and run time integrity controls C. Encryption and security enabled applications D. Enclave boundary protection and computing environment defense
Answer: C
Rationale: Encryption prevents attackers from reading intercepted traffic, mitigating passive attacks such as sniffing.
Question 996
Question 996
When evaluating third-party applications, which of the following is the GREATEST responsibility of Information Security? A. Accept the risk on behalf of the organization. B. Report findings to the business to determine security gaps. C. Quantify the risk to the business for product selection. D. Approve the application that best meets security requirements.
Answer: C
Rationale: Security’s primary role is to assess and quantify risk, enabling management to make informed decisions.
Question 997
Question 997
When designing a vulnerability test, which one of the following is likely to give the BEST indication of what components currently operate on the network? A. Topology diagrams B. Mapping tools C. Asset register D. Ping testing
Answer: D
Rationale: Ping sweeps help identify active hosts, providing a snapshot of operational components on the network.
Question 998
Question 998
Reciprocal backup site agreements are considered to be A. a better alternative than the use of warm sites. B. difficult to test for complex systems. C. easy to implement for similar types of organizations. D. easy to test and implement for complex systems.
Answer: B
Rationale: Reciprocal agreements are often unreliable for complex environments due to incompatible configurations.
Question 999
Question 999
Backup information that is critical to the organization is identified through a A. Vulnerability Assessment (VA). B. Business Continuity Plan (BCP). C. Business Impact Analysis (BIA). D. data recovery analysis.
Answer: D
Rationale: The BIA determines which data and systems are critical to business continuity and disaster recovery planning.
Question 1000
Question 1000
In which identity management process is the subject’s identity established? A. Trust B. Provisioning C. Authorization D. Enrollment
Answer: D
Rationale: Enrollment is the stage where an identity is initially created and validated before access rights are assigned.