What is the MINIMUM standard for testing a disaster recovery plan (DRP)? A. Quarterly or more frequently depending upon the advice of the information security manager B. As often as necessary depending upon stability and business requirements C. Annually or less frequently depending upon audit department requirements D. Semi-annually and in alignment with a fiscal half-year business cycle
Answer: D
Rationale: Disaster recovery plans should be tested at least semi-annually to validate readiness and align with major business review cycles.
Question 562
Question 562
Which security audit standard provides the BEST way for an organization to understand a vendor’s Information Systems (IS) in relation to confidentiality, integrity, and availability? A. Service Organization Control (SOC) 2 B. Statement on Standards for Attestation Engagements (SSAE) 18 C. Statement on Auditing Standards (SAS) 70 D. Service Organization Control (SOC) 1
Answer: D
Rationale: SOC 1 focuses on controls relevant to financial reporting, while SOC 2 specifically addresses confidentiality, integrity, and availability.
Question 563
Question 563
An application team is running tests to ensure that user entry fields will not accept invalid input of any length. What type of negative testing is this an example of? A. Allowed number of characters B. Population of required fields C. Reasonable data D. Session testing
Answer: B
Rationale: Negative testing for required field population ensures systems properly reject invalid or incomplete user input.
Question 564
Question 564
An organization is partnering with a third-party cloud supplier that provides security controls while the organization provides only data. Which of the following BEST describes this service offering? A. Platform as a Service (PaaS) B. Anything as a Service (XaaS) C. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) D. Software as a Service (SaaS)
Answer: A
Rationale: In PaaS, the provider manages the platform and security, while the organization manages its data and applications.
Question 565
Question 565
Which of the following factors should be considered characteristics of Attribute Based Access Control (ABAC) in terms of the attributes used? A. Mandatory Access Control (MAC) and Discretionary Access Control (DAC) B. Discretionary Access Control (DAC) and Access Control List (ACL) C. Role Based Access Control (RBAC) and Mandatory Access Control (MAC) D. Role Based Access Control (RBAC) and Access Control List (ACL)
Answer: D
Rationale: ABAC uses RBAC and ACL-like attribute structures to determine access dynamically based on multiple contextual parameters.
Question 566
Question 566
Which of the following is the MOST significant key management problem due to the number of keys created? A. Exponential growth when using symmetric keys B. Exponential growth when using asymmetric keys C. Storage of the keys requires increased security D. Keys are more difficult to provision and revoke
Answer: C
Rationale: As the number of keys grows, securely storing and protecting them becomes complex and introduces management challenges.
Question 567
Question 567
A CISSP is asked to perform a vulnerability assessment for PCI compliance but has never done so before. According to (ISC)² Code of Ethics, what should the CISSP do? A. Inform the CISO they are unable to perform the task because they must only offer services for which they are competent B. Since certified, attempt with assistance to complete the assessment C. Review CISSP guidelines before performing the assessment D. Review PCI requirements before performing the assessment
Answer: B
Rationale: The (ISC)² Code of Ethics requires CISSPs to provide competent service. If they lack specific experience, they must still perform the task by seeking guidance or supervision, ensuring the work delivered is competent rather than refusing the assignment outright.
Question 568
Question 568
While performing a security review for a new product, a security professional learns that the product team plans to use government-issued IDs as unique customer identifiers. What should be recommended? A. Customer identifiers should be a variant of the user’s government-issued ID number B. Customer identifiers should be a cryptographic hash of the user’s government-issued ID number C. Customer identifiers that do not resemble the user’s government-issued ID number should be used D. Customer identifiers should be based on the user’s name, such as “jdoe”
Answer: C
Rationale: Customer identifiers must not be derived from or resemble government-issued IDs to avoid privacy, correlation, and regulatory compliance issues. Identifiers must be random or unrelated to sensitive personal data.
Question 569
Question 569
The development team collects biometric data in a secure testing environment. During testing, data from an old production database is used. What principle must the team consider? A. Biometric data cannot be changed B. The biometric devices are unknown C. Biometric data must be protected from disclosure D. Separate biometric data streams require increased security
Answer: A
Rationale: Unlike passwords, biometric data is immutable; once compromised, it cannot be replaced, so extra care must be taken during testing.
Question 570
Question 570
During firewall implementation, which failure method BEST prioritizes security? A. Failover B. Fail-Closed C. Fail-Safe D. Fail-Open
Answer: B
Rationale: Fail-Closed ensures that in the event of a system failure, network traffic is blocked rather than allowed, prioritizing security.
Question 571
Question 571
Which of the following services can integrate with Identity as a Service (IDaaS) as the authoritative source of user identities? A. Multi-factor authentication (MFA) B. Directory C. User database D. Single sign-on (SSO)
Answer: B
Rationale: Directories act as the authoritative identity source for IDaaS integrations, centralizing user identity management.
Question 572
Question 572
Which of the following statements is TRUE about Secure Shell (SSH)? A. SSH supports port forwarding, which can be used to protect less secured protocols B. SSH does not protect against man-in-the-middle (MITM) attacks C. SSH is easy to deploy because it requires a web browser only D. SSH can be used with almost any application because it maintains a circuit
Answer: A
Rationale: SSH’s port forwarding feature enables secure tunneling of insecure protocols, providing confidentiality and integrity in transmission.
Question 573
Question 573
What is considered a compensating control for not having electrical surge protectors installed? A. Having dual lines to network service providers built to the site B. Having a hot disaster recovery (DR) environment for the site C. Having network equipment in active-active clusters at the site D. Having backup diesel generators installed to the site
Answer: D
Rationale: Surge protection is a power protection measure. A valid compensating control must also address electrical reliability. Backup diesel generators help ensure stable power during outages or fluctuations, partially compensating for missing surge protectors.
Question 574
Question 574
What is the FIRST step in risk management? A. Identify the factors that have potential to impact business B. Establish the scope and actions required C. Identify existing controls in the environment D. Establish the expectations of stakeholder involvement
Answer: A
Rationale: The first step in risk management is identifying risk factors, assets, and potential threats. Existing controls are evaluated later during the risk analysis process.
Question 575
Question 575
Which of the following is the PRIMARY goal of logical access controls? A. Restrict access to an information asset B. Ensure availability of an information asset C. Restrict physical access to an information asset D. Ensure integrity of an information asset
Answer: A
Rationale: Logical access controls manage user permissions and authentication mechanisms to restrict access to systems and data.
Question 576
Question 576
Which of the following is a covert channel type? A. Pipe B. Memory C. Storage D. Monitoring
Answer: C
Rationale: Covert channels include covert storage channels and covert timing channels. Storage channels manipulate shared storage locations to secretly pass information between processes.
Question 577
Question 577
A software developer wishes to write code that will execute safely and only as intended. Which programming language type is MOST likely to achieve this goal? A. Weakly typed B. Dynamically typed C. Strongly typed D. Statically typed
Answer: C
Rationale: Strongly typed languages enforce strict rules on how variables are used, reducing unintended behavior and increasing code safety and reliability.
Question 578
Question 578
Which role ensures that important datasets are developed, maintained, and accessible within defined specifications? A. Data Custodian B. Data Reviewer C. Data User D. Data Owner
Answer: A
Rationale: The Data Custodian is responsible for maintaining data, ensuring accuracy, integrity, and availability according to the Data Owner’s requirements.
Question 579
Question 579
What is static analysis intended to do when analyzing an executable file? A. Search documents and files associated with the executable file B. Analyze the position of the file in the file system and its libraries C. Collect evidence of usage and file creation details D. Disassemble the file to gather information about the executable file’s function
Answer: D
Rationale: Static analysis disassembles or inspects code without executing it, allowing analysts to understand program behavior and identify vulnerabilities.
Question 580
Question 580
A network security engineer must ensure that URL traffic is inspected and malicious sites are blocked. Which solution should be implemented? A. Application-Level Proxy B. Intrusion detection system (IDS) C. Host-based Firewall D. Circuit-Level Proxy
Answer: A
Rationale: An application-level proxy can inspect and filter application traffic, enforce browsing policies, and log activities for analysis.