CISSP Practice Questions 801-820

Q: Which of the following BEST describes an access control method utilizing cryptographic keys derived from a smart card private key that is embedded within mobile devices? A. Derived credential B. Temporary security credential C. Mobile device credentialing service D. Digest authentication

Correct answer: A. Derived credentials use cryptographic keys based on smart card private keys for secure authentication on mobile platforms.

Q: Which of the following could cause a Denial of Service (DoS) against an authentication system? A. Encryption of audit logs B. No archiving of audit logs C. Hashing of audit logs D. Remote access audit logs

Correct answer: D. Remote access audit logging can overwhelm or disable authentication systems due to resource exhaustion or logging overload.

Q: Which of the following is a PRIMARY benefit of using a formalized security testing report format and structure? A. Executive audiences will understand the outcomes of testing and most appropriate next steps for corrective actions to be taken B. Technical teams will understand the testing objectives, testing strategies applied, and business risk associated with each vulnerability C. Management teams will understand the testing objectives and reputational risk to the organization D. Technical and management teams will better understand the testing objectives, results of each test phase, and potential impact levels

Correct answer: D. A standardized format ensures both technical and management audiences can interpret testing results and impact consistently.

Q: Recovery strategies of a Disaster Recovery planning (DRIP) MUST be aligned with which of the following? A. Hardware and software compatibility issues B. Applications’ critically and downtime tolerance C. Budget constraints and requirements D. Cost/benefit analysis and business objectives

Correct answer: D. Recovery strategies must align with overall business objectives and cost-benefit considerations to ensure continuity priorities match business value.

Q: Which of the following is a PRIMARY advantage of using a third-party identity service? A. Consolidation of multiple providers B. Directory synchronization C. Web based logon D. Automated account management

Correct answer: B. DNS design inherently lacks authentication, allowing cache poisoning and spoofing; DNSSEC addresses this flaw.

Q: What is the MOST important step during forensic analysis when trying to learn the purpose of an unknown application? A. Disable all unnecessary services B. Ensure chain of custody C. Prepare another backup of the system D. Isolate the system from the network

Correct answer: D. Isolation prevents the unknown application from communicating externally or being altered, preserving evidence integrity.

Q: An organization is found lacking the ability to properly establish performance indicators for its Web hosting solution during an audit. What would be the MOST probable cause? A. Absence of a Business Intelligence (BI) solution B. Inadequate cost modeling C. Improper deployment of the Service-Oriented Architecture (SOA) D. Insufficient Service Level Agreement (SLA)

Correct answer: D. Without a well-defined SLA, performance benchmarks and indicators cannot be established or measured accurately.

Q: When is a Business Continuity Plan (BCP) considered to be valid? A. When it has been validated by the Business Continuity (BC) manager B. When it has been validated by the board of directors C. When it has been validated by all threat scenarios D. When it has been validated by realistic exercises

Correct answer: D. A BCP is only proven effective when it is validated through real-world or simulated exercises confirming its practicality.

Q: When in the Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC) MUST software security functional requirements be defined? A. After the system preliminary design has been developed and the data security categorization has been performed B. After the vulnerability analysis has been performed and before the system detailed design begins C. After the system preliminary design has been developed and before the data security categorization begins D. After the business functional analysis and the data security categorization have been performed

Correct answer: C. Security functional requirements are defined early in the SDLC, immediately after preliminary design and before detailed data categorization.

Q: Which of the following is the BEST method to prevent malware from being introduced into a production environment? A. Purchase software from a limited list of retailers B. Verify the hash key or certificate key of all updates C. Do not permit programs, patches, or updates from the Internet D. Test all new software in a segregated environment

Correct answer: D. Testing in an isolated environment prevents malware propagation while validating software before production deployment.

Question 801

Question 801

Which of the following BEST describes an access control method utilizing cryptographic keys derived from a smart card private key that is embedded within mobile devices?
A. Derived credential
B. Temporary security credential
C. Mobile device credentialing service
D. Digest authentication

Question 802

Question 802

Which of the following could cause a Denial of Service (DoS) against an authentication system?
A. Encryption of audit logs
B. No archiving of audit logs
C. Hashing of audit logs
D. Remote access audit logs

Question 803

Question 803

Which of the following is a PRIMARY benefit of using a formalized security testing report format and structure?
A. Executive audiences will understand the outcomes of testing and most appropriate next steps for corrective actions to be taken
B. Technical teams will understand the testing objectives, testing strategies applied, and business risk associated with each vulnerability
C. Management teams will understand the testing objectives and reputational risk to the organization
D. Technical and management teams will better understand the testing objectives, results of each test phase, and potential impact levels

Question 804

Question 804

Recovery strategies of a Disaster Recovery planning (DRIP) MUST be aligned with which of the following?
A. Hardware and software compatibility issues
B. Applications’ critically and downtime tolerance
C. Budget constraints and requirements
D. Cost/benefit analysis and business objectives

Question 805

Question 805

Which of the following is a PRIMARY advantage of using a third-party identity service?
A. Consolidation of multiple providers
B. Directory synchronization
C. Web based logon
D. Automated account management

Question 806

Question 806

What is the MOST important step during forensic analysis when trying to learn the purpose of an unknown application?
A. Disable all unnecessary services
B. Ensure chain of custody
C. Prepare another backup of the system
D. Isolate the system from the network

Question 807

Question 807

An organization is found lacking the ability to properly establish performance indicators for its Web hosting solution during an audit. What would be the MOST probable cause?
A. Absence of a Business Intelligence (BI) solution
B. Inadequate cost modeling
C. Improper deployment of the Service-Oriented Architecture (SOA)
D. Insufficient Service Level Agreement (SLA)

Question 808

Question 808

When is a Business Continuity Plan (BCP) considered to be valid?
A. When it has been validated by the Business Continuity (BC) manager
B. When it has been validated by the board of directors
C. When it has been validated by all threat scenarios
D. When it has been validated by realistic exercises

Question 809

Question 809

When in the Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC) MUST software security functional requirements be defined?
A. After the system preliminary design has been developed and the data security categorization has been performed
B. After the vulnerability analysis has been performed and before the system detailed design begins
C. After the system preliminary design has been developed and before the data security categorization begins
D. After the business functional analysis and the data security categorization have been performed

Question 810

Question 810

Which of the following is the BEST method to prevent malware from being introduced into a production environment?
A. Purchase software from a limited list of retailers
B. Verify the hash key or certificate key of all updates
C. Do not permit programs, patches, or updates from the Internet
D. Test all new software in a segregated environment

Question 811

Question 811

The three PRIMARY requirements for a penetration test are
A. A defined goal, limited time period, and approval of management
B. A general objective, unlimited time, and approval of the network administrator
C. An objective statement, disclosed methodology, and fixed cost
D. A stated objective, liability waiver, and disclosed methodology

Question 812

Question 812

Internet Protocol (IP) source address spoofing is used to defeat
A. address-based authentication.
B. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP).
C. Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (RARP).
D. Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) hijacking.

Question 813

Question 813

Which of the following is the FIRST action that a system administrator should take when it is revealed during a penetration test that everyone in an organization has unauthorized access to a server holding sensitive data?
A. Immediately document the finding and report to senior management.
B. Use system privileges to alter the permissions to secure the server
C. Continue the testing to its completion and then inform IT management
D. Terminate the penetration test and pass the finding to the server management team

Question 814

Question 814

Which of the following MUST be part of a contract to support electronic discovery of data stored in a cloud environment?
A. Integration with organizational directory services for authentication
B. Tokenization of data
C. Accommodation of hybrid deployment models
D. Identification of data location

Question 815

Question 815

Logical access control programs are MOST effective when they are
A. approved by external auditors.
B. combined with security token technology.
C. maintained by computer security officers.
D. made part of the operating system.

Question 816

Question 816

Contingency plan exercises are intended to do which of the following?
A. Train personnel in roles and responsibilities
B. Validate service level agreements
C. Train maintenance personnel
D. Validate operation metrics

Question 817

Question 817

The key benefits of a signed and encrypted e-mail include
A. confidentiality, authentication, and authorization.
B. confidentiality, non-repudiation, and authentication.
C. non-repudiation, authorization, and authentication.
D. non-repudiation, confidentiality, and authorization.

Question 818

Question 818

What technique BEST describes antivirus software that detects viruses by watching anomalous behavior?
A. Signature
B. Inference
C. Induction
D. Heuristic

Question 819

Question 819

Why is a system's criticality classification important in large organizations?
A. It provides for proper prioritization and scheduling of security and maintenance tasks.
B. It reduces critical system support workload and reduces the time required to apply patches.
C. It allows for clear systems status communications to executive management.
D. It provides for easier determination of ownership, reducing confusion as to the status of the asset.

Question 820

Question 820

Which layer of the Open Systems Interconnections (OSI) model implementation adds information concerning the logical connection between the sender and receiver?
A. Physical
B. Session
C. Transport
D. Data-Link