Why is data classification control important to an organization? A. To enable data discovery B. To ensure security controls align with organizational risk appetite C. To ensure its integrity, confidentiality and availability D. To control data retention in alignment with organizational policies and regulation
Answer: B
Rationale: Data classification ensures that security controls match the sensitivity of data and the organization’s risk appetite, allowing proportional protection for each classification level (e.g., public, internal, confidential).
Question 462
Question 462
To monitor the security of buried data lines inside the perimeter of a facility, which of the following is the MOST effective control? A. Fencing around the facility with closed-circuit television (CCTV) cameras at all entry points B. Ground sensors installed and reporting to a security event management (SEM) system C. Regular sweeps of the perimeter, including manual inspection of the cable ingress points D. Steel casing around the facility ingress points
Answer: C
Rationale: Regular manual inspections ensure detection of tampering or breaches to buried data lines — providing an active, verifiable layer of defense that automated systems alone might miss.
Question 463
Question 463
An enterprise is developing a baseline cybersecurity standard its suppliers must meet before being awarded a contract. Which of the following statements is TRUE about the baseline cybersecurity standard? A. It should be expressed as general requirements. B. It should be expressed as technical requirements. C. It should be expressed in business terminology. D. It should be expressed in legal terminology.
Answer: B
Rationale: Baseline cybersecurity standards must be technically measurable and enforceable, ensuring suppliers meet defined configuration, encryption, and control criteria rather than vague or legal descriptions.
Question 464
Question 464
Which access control method is based on users issuing access requests on system resources, features assigned to those resources, the operational or situational context, and a set of policies specified in terms of those features and context? A. Mandatory Access Control (MAC) B. Attribute Based Access Control (ABAC) C. Role Based Access Control (RBAC) D. Discretionary Access Control (DAC)
Answer: B
Rationale: ABAC grants or denies access based on attributes (e.g., role, device type, location, time, and environment) — offering dynamic and context-aware access decisions.
Question 465
Question 465
What is a security concern when considering implementing software-defined networking (SDN)? A. It has a decentralized architecture. B. It increases the attack footprint. C. It uses open source protocols. D. It is cloud based.
Answer: B
Rationale: SDN centralizes network control, which creates a single point of failure and increases the attack surface. Compromising the controller can compromise the entire network.
Question 466
Question 466
What is the BEST way to restrict access to a file system on computing systems? A. Use least privilege at each level to restrict access. B. Restrict access to all users. C. Allow a user group to restrict access. D. Use a third-party tool to restrict access.
Answer: A
Rationale: Applying the principle of least privilege ensures users only have access necessary for their role, minimizing risk of unauthorized access or data exposure.
Question 467
Question 467
Which of the following is the PRIMARY reason for selecting the appropriate level of detail for audit record generation? A. Avoid lengthy audit reports B. Enable generation of corrective action reports C. Facilitate a root cause analysis (RCA) D. Lower costs throughout the System Development Life Cycle (SDLC)
Answer: B
Rationale: Detailed and appropriate audit records allow auditors to generate corrective action reports, identifying the cause and recommending solutions without excessive or irrelevant data.
Question 468
Question 468
What is the correct order of execution for security architecture? A. Governance, strategy and program management, operations, project delivery B. Governance, strategy and program management, project delivery, operations C. Strategy and program management, project delivery, governance, operations D. Strategy and program management, governance, project delivery, operations
Answer: C
Rationale: Security architecture flows logically as: Strategy → Program Management → Project Delivery → Governance → Operations, ensuring planning, implementation, oversight, and ongoing management occur in proper sequence.
Question 469
Question 469
An international organization has decided to use a Software as a Service (SaaS) solution to support its business operations. Which of the following compliance standards should the organization use to assess the international code security and data privacy of the solution? A. Service Organization Control (SOC) 2 B. Information Assurance Technical Framework (IATF) C. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) D. Payment Card Industry (PCI)
Answer: B
Rationale: The IATF (Information Assurance Technical Framework) provides international guidance on securing systems, applications, and data — suitable for evaluating SaaS providers globally.
Question 470
Question 470
An authentication system that uses challenge and response was recently implemented on an organization’s network, because the organization conducted an annual penetration test showing that testers were able to move laterally using authenticated credentials. Which attack method was MOST likely used to achieve this? A. Hash collision B. Pass the ticket C. Brute force D. Cross-Site Scripting (XSS)
Answer: B
Rationale: Pass-the-ticket is a Kerberos-based attack that allows lateral movement using stolen tickets (authenticated credentials), often prompting organizations to adopt challenge-response mechanisms to stop reuse.
Question 471
Question 471
Which of the following would qualify as an exception to the “right to be forgotten” of the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR)? A. For the establishment, exercise, or defense of legal claims B. The personal data has been lawfully processed and collected C. For the reasons of private interest D. The personal data remains necessary to the purpose for which it was collected
Answer: A
Rationale: GDPR Article 17(3) states that the “right to be forgotten” does not apply when processing is required for legal claims, ensuring data may be retained for legitimate defense.
Question 472
Question 472
Dumpster diving is a technique used in which stage of penetration testing methodology? A. Attack B. Reporting C. Planning D. Discovery
Answer: D
Rationale: Dumpster diving is a reconnaissance (discovery) activity — it gathers preliminary data (like credentials or configurations) from discarded materials before active testing begins.
Question 473
Question 473
Which of the following is performed to determine a measure of success of a security awareness training program designed to prevent social engineering attacks? A. Employee evaluation of the training program B. Internal assessment of the training program’s effectiveness C. Multiple choice tests to participants D. Management control of reviews
Answer: B
Rationale: The internal assessment evaluates real-world effectiveness — tracking phishing simulations or incident rates — rather than subjective employee feedback or quizzes.
Question 474
Question 474
The security team is notified that a device on the network is infected with malware. Which of the following is MOST effective in enabling the device to be quickly located and remediated? A. Data loss protection (DLP) B. Intrusion detection C. Vulnerability scanner D. Information Technology Asset Management (ITAM)
Answer: D
Rationale: ITAM systems maintain an inventory linking each device to users, departments, and network locations — enabling fast identification and response to infected assets.
Question 475
Question 475
Which of the following threats would be MOST likely mitigated by monitoring assets containing open source libraries for vulnerabilities? A. Distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attack B. Advanced persistent threat (APT) attempt C. Zero-day attack D. Phishing attempt
Answer: C
Rationale: Tracking vulnerabilities in open source components helps mitigate zero-day attacks, where unpatched or newly discovered flaws in reused code are exploited.
Question 476
Question 476
As a design principle, which one of the following actors is responsible for identifying and approving data security requirement in a cloud ecosystem? A. Cloud auditor B. Cloud broker C. Cloud provider D. Cloud consumer
Answer: C
Rationale: The cloud provider establishes and enforces data security requirements — defining encryption, access, and storage controls — as part of its service responsibility model.
Question 477
Question 477
Which of the following is the MOST effective way to ensure the endpoint devices used by remote users are compliant with an organization’s approved policies before being allowed on the network? A. Network Access Control (NAC) B. Privileged Access Management (PAM) C. Group Policy Object (GPO) D. Mobile Device Management (MDM)
Answer: A
Rationale: NAC validates device posture (e.g., antivirus, patch level) before granting access, ensuring compliance and preventing noncompliant devices from connecting.
Question 478
Question 478
Which one of the following BEST protects vendor accounts that are used for emergency maintenance? A. Vendor access should be disabled until needed B. Frequent monitoring of vendor access C. Role-based access control (RBAC) D. Encryption of routing tables
Answer: A
Rationale: Emergency vendor accounts represent high-risk external access. CISSP best practice is to disable them by default and only enable them when required, then disable again after use. RBAC limits permissions but does not eliminate the risk of standing vendor accounts.
Question 479
Question 479
Which event magnitude is defined as deadly, destructive, and disruptive when a hazard interacts with human vulnerability? A. Crisis B. Catastrophe C. Accident D. Disaster
Answer: B
Rationale: A catastrophe is defined in CISSP frameworks as an event that is deadly, destructive, and massively disruptive. Accidents are smaller-scale and unplanned; disasters require DR activation but are not always deadly.
Question 480
Question 480
Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of software forensics? A. To analyze possible malicious intent of malware B. To perform cyclic redundancy check (CRC) verification and detect changed applications C. To determine the author and behavior of the code D. To review program code to determine the existence of backdoors
Answer: C
Rationale: Software forensics analyzes code to identify authorship, origin, and behavior — commonly used in intellectual property or malware attribution investigations.