CISSP Practice Questions (21–40)

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Question 21

Question 21

What level of Redundant Array of Independent Disks (RAID) is configured PRIMARILY for high-performance data reads and writes?
A. RAID-0
B. RAID-1
C. RAID-5
D. RAID-6

Question 22

Question 22

Which of the following MUST the administrator of a security information and event management (SIEM) system ensure?
A. All sources are reporting in the exact same Extensible Markup Language (XML) format.
B. Data sources do not contain information infringing upon privacy regulations.
C. All sources are synchronized with a common time reference.
D. Each source uses the same Internet Protocol (IP) address for reporting.

Question 23

Question 23

Which audit type is MOST appropriate for evaluating the effectiveness of a security program?
A. Threat
B. Assessment
C. Analysis
D. Validation

Question 24

Question 24

Which of the following types of firewall only examines the “handshaking” between packets before forwarding traffic?
A. Proxy firewalls
B. Host-based firewalls
C. Circuit-level firewalls
D. Network Address Translation (NAT) firewalls

Question 25

Question 25

What method could be used to prevent passive attacks against secure voice communications between an organization and its vendor?
A. Encryption in transit
B. Configure a virtual private network (VPN)
C. Configure a dedicated connection
D. Encryption at rest

Question 26

Question 26

An attacker is able to remain indefinitely logged into a web service by exploiting to remain on the web service?
A. Alert management
B. Password management
C. Session management
D. Identity management (IM)

Question 27

Question 27

What is the FIRST step for an organization to take before allowing personnel to access social media from a corporate device or user account?
A. Publish a social media guidelines document.
B. Publish an acceptable usage policy.
C. Document a procedure for accessing social media sites.
D. Deliver security awareness training.

Question 28

Question 28

Which of the following is the MOST effective preventative method to identify security flaws in software?
A. Monitor performance in production environments.
B. Perform a structured code review.
C. Perform application penetration testing.
D. Use automated security vulnerability testing tools.

Question 29

Question 29

Information security practitioners are in the midst of implementing a new firewall. Which of the following failure methods would BEST prioritize security in the event of failure?
A. Fail-Closed
B. Fail-Open
C. Fail-Safe
D. Failover

Question 30

Question 30

What would be the BEST action to take in a situation where collected evidence was left unattended overnight in an unlocked vehicle?
A. Report the matter to the local police authorities.
B. Move evidence to a climate-controlled environment.
C. Re-inventory the evidence and provide it to the evidence custodian.
D. Immediately report the matter to the case supervisor.

Question 31

Question 31

Which of the following is the BEST way to protect against Structured Query Language (SQL) injection?
A. Enforce boundary checking.
B. Restrict use of SELECT command.
C. Restrict HyperText Markup Language (HTML) source code.
D. Use stored procedures.

Question 32

Question 32

Which of the following is the MOST effective method of detecting vulnerabilities in web-based applications early in the secure Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC)?
A. Web application vulnerability scanning
B. Application fuzzing
C. Code review
D. Penetration testing

Question 33

Question 33

Which of the following statements BEST distinguishes a stateful packet inspection firewall from a stateless packet filter firewall?
A. The SPI inspects the flags on Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) and User Datagram Protocol (UDP) packets.
B. The SPI inspects the traffic in the context of a session.
C. The SPI is capable of dropping packets based on a pre-defined rule set.
D. The SPI inspects traffic on a packet-by-packet basis.

Question 34

Question 34

Which access control method is based on users issuing access requests on system resources, features assigned to those resources, the operational or situational context, and a set of policies specified in terms of those features and context?
A. Mandatory Access Control (MAC)
B. Role Based Access Control (RBAC)
C. Discretionary Access Control (DAC)
D. Attribute Based Access Control (ABAC)

Question 35

Question 35

Which of the following uses the destination IP address to forward packets?
A. A bridge
B. A layer 2 switch
C. A router
D. A repeater

Question 36

Question 36

A software developer installs a game on their organization-provided smartphone. Upon installing the game, the software developer is prompted to allow the game access to call logs, Short Message Service (SMS) messaging, and Global Positioning System (GPS) location data. What has the game MOST likely introduced to the smartphone?
A. Alerting
B. Vulnerability
C. Geo-fencing
D. Monitoring

Question 37

Question 37

Why is data classification control important to an organization?
A. To ensure its integrity, confidentiality, and availability
B. To enable data discovery
C. To control data retention in alignment with organizational policies and regulation
D. To ensure security controls align with organizational risk appetite

Question 38

Question 38

Why is authentication by ownership stronger than authentication by knowledge?
A. It is easier to change.
B. It can be kept on the user’s person.
C. It is more difficult to duplicate.
D. It is simpler to control.

Question 39

Question 39

Which of the following is the BEST way to mitigate circumvention of access controls?
A. Multi-layer access controls working in isolation
B. Multi-vendor approach to technology implementation
C. Multi-layer firewall architecture with Internet Protocol (IP) filtering enabled
D. Multi-layer access controls with diversification of technologies

Question 40

Question 40

Which of the following implementations will achieve high availability in a website?
A. Multiple Domain Name System (DNS) entries resolving to the same web server and large amounts of bandwidth
B. Disk mirroring of the web server with redundant disk drives in a hardened data center
C. Disk striping of the web server hard drives and large amounts of bandwidth
D. Multiple geographically dispersed web servers that are configured for failover