CISSP Practice Questions (201–220)

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Question 201

Question 201

A continuous information security monitoring program can BEST reduce risk through which of the following?
A. Collecting security events and correlating them to identify anomalies
B. Facilitating system-wide visibility into the activities of critical user accounts
C. Encompassing people, process, and technology
D. Logging both scheduled and unscheduled system changes

Question 202

Question 202

An organization is found lacking the ability to properly establish performance indicators for its Web hosting solution during an audit. What would be the MOST probable cause?
A. Absence of a Business Intelligence (BI) solution
B. Inadequate cost modeling
C. Improper deployment of the Service-Oriented Architecture (SOA)
D. Insufficient Service Level Agreement (SLA)

Question 203

Question 203

What is the PRIMARY reason for implementing change management?
A. Certify and approve releases to the environment
B. Provide version rollbacks for system changes
C. Ensure that all applications are approved
D. Ensure accountability for changes to the environment

Question 204

Question 204

What should be the FIRST action to protect the chain of evidence when a desktop computer is involved?
A. Take the computer to a forensic lab
B. Make a copy of the hard drive
C. Start documenting
D. Turn off the computer

Question 205

Question 205

Which of the following is the BEST method to prevent malware from being introduced into a production environment?
A. Purchase software from a limited list of retailers
B. Verify the hash key or certificate key of all updates
C. Do not permit programs, patches, or updates from the Internet
D. Test all new software in a segregated environment

Question 206

Question 206

Internet Protocol (IP) source address spoofing is used to defeat
A. address-based authentication.
B. Address Resolution Protocol (ARP).
C. Reverse Address Resolution Protocol (RARP).
D. Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) hijacking.

Question 207

Question 207

Which of the following is the FIRST action that a system administrator should take when it is revealed during a penetration test that everyone in an organization has unauthorized access to a server holding sensitive data?
A. Immediately document the finding and report to senior management.
B. Use system privileges to alter the permissions to secure the server
C. Continue the testing to its completion and then inform IT management
D. Terminate the penetration test and pass the finding to the server management team

Question 208

Question 208

Which of the following is a limitation of the Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) as it relates to conducting code review?
A. It has normalized severity ratings.
B. It has many worksheets and practices to implement.
C. It aims to calculate the risk of published vulnerabilities.
D. It requires a robust risk management framework to be put in place.

Question 209

Question 209

To prevent inadvertent disclosure of restricted information, which of the following would be the LEAST effective process for eliminating data prior to the media being discarded?
A. Multiple-pass overwriting
B. Degaussing
C. High-level formatting
D. Physical destruction

Question 210

Question 210

A vulnerability test on an Information System (IS) is conducted to
A. exploit security weaknesses in the IS.
B. measure system performance on systems with weak security controls.
C. evaluate the effectiveness of security controls.
D. prepare for Disaster Recovery (DR) planning.

Question 211

Question 211

An organization allows ping traffic into and out of their network. An attacker has installed a program on the network that uses the payload portion of the ping packet to move data into and out of the network. What type of attack has the organization experienced?
A. Data leakage
B. Unfiltered channel
C. Data emanation
D. Covert channel

Question 212

Question 212

Contingency plan exercises are intended to do which of the following?
A. Train personnel in roles and responsibilities
B. Validate service level agreements
C. Train maintenance personnel
D. Validate operation metrics

Question 213

Question 213

The key benefits of a signed and encrypted e-mail include
A. confidentiality, authentication, and authorization.
B. confidentiality, non-repudiation, and authentication.
C. non-repudiation, authorization, and authentication.
D. non-repudiation, confidentiality, and authorization.

Question 214

Question 214

The Structured Query Language (SQL) implements Discretionary Access Controls (DAC) using
A. INSERT and DELETE.
B. GRANT and REVOKE.
C. PUBLIC and PRIVATE.
D. ROLLBACK and TERMINATE.

Question 215

Question 215

Which of the following is considered best practice for preventing e-mail spoofing?
A. Spam filtering
B. Cryptographic signature
C. Uniform Resource Locator (URL) filtering
D. Reverse Domain Name Service (DNS) lookup

Question 216

Question 216

An advantage of link encryption in a communications network is that it
A. makes key management and distribution easier.
B. protects data from start to finish through the entire network.
C. improves the efficiency of the transmission.
D. encrypts all information, including headers and routing information.

Question 217

Question 217

The process of mutual authentication involves a computer system authenticating a user and authenticating the
A. user to the audit process.
B. computer system to the user.
C. user's access to all authorized objects.
D. computer system to the audit process.

Question 218

Question 218

Which of the following is the best practice for testing a Business Continuity Plan (BCP)?
A. Test before the IT Audit
B. Test when environment changes
C. Test after installation of security patches
D. Test after implementation of system patches

Question 219

Question 219

The PRIMARY purpose of a security awareness program is to
A. ensure that everyone understands the organization's policies and procedures.
B. communicate that access to information will be granted on a need-to-know basis.
C. warn all users that access to all systems will be monitored on a daily basis.
D. comply with regulations related to data and information protection.

Question 220

Question 220

A practice that permits the owner of a data object to grant other users access to that object would usually provide
A. Mandatory Access Control (MAC).
B. owner-administered control.
C. owner-dependent access control.
D. Discretionary Access Control (DAC).